NR 305 Health Assessment Exam 8 Study Guide 2026 |Chamberlain
College
1. When assessing the abdomen, what is the correct sequence of physical
examination techniques?
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
C. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Answer: D
Rationale: Auscultation is performed before percussion and palpation to prevent the
stimulation of bowel sounds, which could lead to inaccurate assessment findings.
2. Which lung sound is characterized by high-pitched, musical sounds heard
primarily during expiration?
A. Wheeze
B. Crackles
C. Rhonchi
D. Stridor
Answer: A
Rationale: Wheezes are high-pitched, musical sounds caused by air squeezed through
narrowed bronchial passages, often associated with asthma or COPD.
,3. The nurse uses the Snellen chart to assess the function of which cranial
nerve?
A. Cranial Nerve I
B. Cranial Nerve III
C. Cranial Nerve II
D. Cranial Nerve IV
Answer: C
Rationale: Cranial Nerve II is the Optic nerve, responsible for visual acuity which is tested
using the Snellen chart.
4. The S1 heart sound is caused by the closure of which valves?
A. Aortic and Pulmonic
B. Mitral and Aortic
C. Tricuspid and Pulmonic
D. Mitral and Tricuspid
Answer: D
Rationale: S1, the ‘lub’ sound, is produced by the closure of the Atrioventricular (AV)
valves, which are the mitral and tricuspid valves.
5. Where is the best anatomical location to assess skin turgor in an elderly
patient?
A. The abdomen
B. The back of the hand
C. The forearm
D. The subclavicular area or sternum
Answer: D
Rationale: In elderly patients, the back of the hand has decreased elasticity due to age;
therefore, the sternum or subclavicular area provides a more accurate assessment of
hydration status.
, 6. A nurse observes a 4mm deep indentation that returns to normal within 15
seconds after pressure is released. How should this edema be graded?
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+
Answer: B
Rationale: 2+ edema is characterized by a 4mm indentation that subsides relatively
quickly (10-15 seconds).
7. In the PQRST mnemonic for pain assessment, what does the ‘R’ represent?
A. Reaction
B. Radiation
C. Relief
D. Severity
Answer: B
Rationale: ‘R’ stands for Radiation or Region, asking the patient where the pain is and if it
travels to other parts of the body.
8. Which of the following is considered subjective data?
A. Blood pressure of 140/90
B. Respiratory rate of 22
C. Patient reporting a headache
D. Presence of a rash on the arm
Answer: C
Rationale: Subjective data consists of information provided by the patient that cannot be
directly observed or measured by the nurse, such as symptoms like pain or headache.
College
1. When assessing the abdomen, what is the correct sequence of physical
examination techniques?
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
C. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Answer: D
Rationale: Auscultation is performed before percussion and palpation to prevent the
stimulation of bowel sounds, which could lead to inaccurate assessment findings.
2. Which lung sound is characterized by high-pitched, musical sounds heard
primarily during expiration?
A. Wheeze
B. Crackles
C. Rhonchi
D. Stridor
Answer: A
Rationale: Wheezes are high-pitched, musical sounds caused by air squeezed through
narrowed bronchial passages, often associated with asthma or COPD.
,3. The nurse uses the Snellen chart to assess the function of which cranial
nerve?
A. Cranial Nerve I
B. Cranial Nerve III
C. Cranial Nerve II
D. Cranial Nerve IV
Answer: C
Rationale: Cranial Nerve II is the Optic nerve, responsible for visual acuity which is tested
using the Snellen chart.
4. The S1 heart sound is caused by the closure of which valves?
A. Aortic and Pulmonic
B. Mitral and Aortic
C. Tricuspid and Pulmonic
D. Mitral and Tricuspid
Answer: D
Rationale: S1, the ‘lub’ sound, is produced by the closure of the Atrioventricular (AV)
valves, which are the mitral and tricuspid valves.
5. Where is the best anatomical location to assess skin turgor in an elderly
patient?
A. The abdomen
B. The back of the hand
C. The forearm
D. The subclavicular area or sternum
Answer: D
Rationale: In elderly patients, the back of the hand has decreased elasticity due to age;
therefore, the sternum or subclavicular area provides a more accurate assessment of
hydration status.
, 6. A nurse observes a 4mm deep indentation that returns to normal within 15
seconds after pressure is released. How should this edema be graded?
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+
Answer: B
Rationale: 2+ edema is characterized by a 4mm indentation that subsides relatively
quickly (10-15 seconds).
7. In the PQRST mnemonic for pain assessment, what does the ‘R’ represent?
A. Reaction
B. Radiation
C. Relief
D. Severity
Answer: B
Rationale: ‘R’ stands for Radiation or Region, asking the patient where the pain is and if it
travels to other parts of the body.
8. Which of the following is considered subjective data?
A. Blood pressure of 140/90
B. Respiratory rate of 22
C. Patient reporting a headache
D. Presence of a rash on the arm
Answer: C
Rationale: Subjective data consists of information provided by the patient that cannot be
directly observed or measured by the nurse, such as symptoms like pain or headache.
