Advanced Prep Bundle Forms A, B & C | Verified
Q&A with Detailed Rationales | Updated Test
Bank & A+ Study Guide
1. A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a 7-year-
old. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Use a mummy restraint to hold the child during the catheter insertion.
B) Require the parents to leave the room during the procedure.
C) Tell the child they will feel discomfort during the catheter insertion.
D) Ask the child to count backward from 10 during the insertion.
Rationale: Being honest about discomfort (e.g., "a pinch") builds trust with a
school-age child. Mummy restraints are for infants, parents should generally be
allowed to stay for support, and distraction is helpful but honesty is the priority.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report?
A) Thrill upon palpation.
B) Absence of a bruit.
C) Distended blood vessels.
D) Swishing sound upon auscultation.
Rationale: Absence of a bruit (or thrill) indicates possible clot formation or stenosis in the
fistula, which is a critical finding. A thrill, swishing sound (bruit), and distended vessels are
expected findings.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable
cardioverter defibrillator. Which of the following statements demonstrates
understanding of the teaching?
,A) "I will soak in the tub rather than showering."
B) "I will wear loose clothing around my ICD."
C) "I will stop using my microwave oven at home because of my ICD."
D) "I can hold my cellphone on the same side of my body as the ICD."
Rationale: Loose clothing prevents irritation over the ICD site. Showers are preferred over
tub baths. Microwaves are safe. Cell phones should be held on the opposite side.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks’ gestation and reports feelings
of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should
the nurse make?
A) "You should discuss your feelings about being pregnant with your provider."
B) "Have you discussed these feelings with your partner?"
C) "When did you start having these feelings?"
D) "Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant."
Rationale: Ambivalence is normal in the first trimester. Using an open-ended statement
allows the client to express feelings and explore them therapeutically.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-training
program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions should the
nurse include in the plan of care?
A) Encourage a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day.
B) Increase the amount of refined grains in the client’s diet.
C) Provide the client with a cold drink prior to defecation.
D) Administer a rectal suppository 30 minutes prior to scheduled defecation times.
Rationale: Rectal suppositories stimulate peristalsis and can help establish a regular
bowel schedule. Fluid intake should be higher (2-3L), fiber is needed, and warm drinks (not
cold) help stimulate the gastrocolic reflex.
,6. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and requests pain
management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Administer ondansetron.
B) Place the client in a warm shower.
C) Apply fundal pressure during contractions.
D) Assist the client to a supine position.
Rationale: A warm shower (hydrotherapy) is a non-pharmacological comfort measure for
labor pain. Ondansetron is for nausea. Fundal pressure is dangerous. Supine position can
cause supine hypotensive syndrome.
7. A nurse in an emergency department is performing triage for multiple clients
following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries
should the nurse assign the highest priority?
A) Below-the-knee amputation.
B) Fractured tibia.
C) 95% full-thickness body burn.
D) 10cm (4in) laceration to the forearm.
Rationale: In disaster triage, a below-the-knee amputation is high priority (red tag) as it is
life-threatening but potentially survivable. 95% burns are typically expectant (black tag)
due to poor prognosis.
8. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of
the following guidelines should the nurse include?
A) Remove the client’s restraint every 4 hr.
B) Document the client’s condition every 15 min.
C) Attach the restraint to the bed’s side rails.
D) Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
Rationale: Restrained clients require frequent monitoring (every 15 minutes for safety and
, behavior). Restraints should be removed every 2 hours. Restraints attach to the bed frame,
not side rails. PRN restraint orders are not allowed.
9. A nurse is teaching an in-service about nursing leadership. Which of the
following information should the nurse include about an effective leader?
A) Acts as an advocate for the nursing unit.
B) (Unable to read) for the unit.
C) Prioritizes staff request over client needs.
D) Provides routine client care and documentation.
Rationale: An effective leader advocates for the unit's resources, staff, and needs. Client
needs come first, and leadership focuses on guidance, not routine task completion.
10. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes
mellitus. The nurse should identify which of the following findings indicates a
need to revise the client’s plan of care?
A) Serum sodium 144 mEq/L.
B) (Unable to read)
C) Hba1c 10%.
D) Random serum glucose 190 mg/dl.
Rationale: An HbA1c of 10% is well above the target of <7% for most adults, indicating
poor glycemic control over the past 3 months. A random glucose of 190 mg/dL is elevated
but less indicative of long-term control issues.
11. A nurse in a provider’s office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of
clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted
infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to
the state health department?
A) Chlamydia.