NR 324 Adult Health II Exam 3 Study Guide 2026 |Chamberlain College
1. A patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) has a serum potassium level of
6.2 mEq/L. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first to
protect the heart?
A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
B. Calcium Gluconate
C. Furosemide (Lasix)
D. Regular Insulin and IV Glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium gluconate does not lower potassium, but it antagonizes the effects of
hyperkalemia on the myocardium, preventing life-threatening dysrhythmias.
2. The nurse is monitoring a patient with a head injury. Which of the following
findings is part of Cushing’s Triad, indicating increased intracranial pressure?
A. Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea
B. Bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations
C. Hypotension, bradycardia, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations
D. Narrowed pulse pressure, tachycardia, and hypertension
Answer: B
Rationale: Cushing’s Triad consists of bradycardia, systolic hypertension with a widened
pulse pressure, and irregular or slowed respirations.
,3. A patient’s ABG results are: pH 7.31, PaCO2 50 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. How
should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Respiratory Acidosis, uncompensated
B. Metabolic Acidosis, compensated
C. Respiratory Alkalosis, partially compensated
D. Metabolic Alkalosis, uncompensated
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis), the PaCO2 is high (respiratory cause), and the HCO3 is
normal, indicating no compensation yet.
4. Which clinical manifestation is specifically associated with left-sided heart
failure rather than right-sided heart failure?
A. Crackles in the lungs
B. Peripheral edema
C. Splenomegaly
D. Jugular venous distention
Answer: A
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, resulting in symptoms
like crackles, dyspnea, and cough.
5. A patient undergoing peritoneal dialysis reports that the outflow (effluent) is
cloudy. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Drain the remaining fluid and document
B. Slow the rate of the next infusion
C. Apply a warm compress to the abdomen
D. Notify the healthcare provider and obtain a culture
Answer: D
Rationale: Cloudy effluent is the earliest sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of
peritoneal dialysis requiring immediate medical attention.
, 6. What is the primary goal of administering Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA)
to a patient with an ischemic stroke?
A. To dissolve the existing thrombus and restore blood flow
B. To reduce cerebral edema
C. To prevent further clot formation
D. To lower systemic blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: tPA is a fibrinolytic agent that works by dissolving the clot causing the stroke,
but it must be given within a specific timeframe (usually 3 to 4.5 hours).
7. A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 requires which priority
intervention?
A. Preparation for endotracheal intubation
B. Administration of intravenous fluids
C. Insertion of a Foley catheter
D. Frequent orientation to person, place, and time
Answer: A
Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or less indicates severe brain injury and the inability to
maintain a patent airway; ‘GCS less than 8, intubate.’
8. In Atrial Fibrillation, what is the primary reason for prescribing an
anticoagulant like Warfarin?
A. To convert the rhythm to Normal Sinus
B. To slow the ventricular rate
C. To increase myocardial contractility
D. To prevent embolic stroke
Answer: D
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation causes blood to pool in the atria, increasing the risk of clot
formation and subsequent stroke.
1. A patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) has a serum potassium level of
6.2 mEq/L. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first to
protect the heart?
A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
B. Calcium Gluconate
C. Furosemide (Lasix)
D. Regular Insulin and IV Glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium gluconate does not lower potassium, but it antagonizes the effects of
hyperkalemia on the myocardium, preventing life-threatening dysrhythmias.
2. The nurse is monitoring a patient with a head injury. Which of the following
findings is part of Cushing’s Triad, indicating increased intracranial pressure?
A. Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea
B. Bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations
C. Hypotension, bradycardia, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations
D. Narrowed pulse pressure, tachycardia, and hypertension
Answer: B
Rationale: Cushing’s Triad consists of bradycardia, systolic hypertension with a widened
pulse pressure, and irregular or slowed respirations.
,3. A patient’s ABG results are: pH 7.31, PaCO2 50 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. How
should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Respiratory Acidosis, uncompensated
B. Metabolic Acidosis, compensated
C. Respiratory Alkalosis, partially compensated
D. Metabolic Alkalosis, uncompensated
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis), the PaCO2 is high (respiratory cause), and the HCO3 is
normal, indicating no compensation yet.
4. Which clinical manifestation is specifically associated with left-sided heart
failure rather than right-sided heart failure?
A. Crackles in the lungs
B. Peripheral edema
C. Splenomegaly
D. Jugular venous distention
Answer: A
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, resulting in symptoms
like crackles, dyspnea, and cough.
5. A patient undergoing peritoneal dialysis reports that the outflow (effluent) is
cloudy. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Drain the remaining fluid and document
B. Slow the rate of the next infusion
C. Apply a warm compress to the abdomen
D. Notify the healthcare provider and obtain a culture
Answer: D
Rationale: Cloudy effluent is the earliest sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of
peritoneal dialysis requiring immediate medical attention.
, 6. What is the primary goal of administering Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA)
to a patient with an ischemic stroke?
A. To dissolve the existing thrombus and restore blood flow
B. To reduce cerebral edema
C. To prevent further clot formation
D. To lower systemic blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: tPA is a fibrinolytic agent that works by dissolving the clot causing the stroke,
but it must be given within a specific timeframe (usually 3 to 4.5 hours).
7. A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 requires which priority
intervention?
A. Preparation for endotracheal intubation
B. Administration of intravenous fluids
C. Insertion of a Foley catheter
D. Frequent orientation to person, place, and time
Answer: A
Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or less indicates severe brain injury and the inability to
maintain a patent airway; ‘GCS less than 8, intubate.’
8. In Atrial Fibrillation, what is the primary reason for prescribing an
anticoagulant like Warfarin?
A. To convert the rhythm to Normal Sinus
B. To slow the ventricular rate
C. To increase myocardial contractility
D. To prevent embolic stroke
Answer: D
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation causes blood to pool in the atria, increasing the risk of clot
formation and subsequent stroke.
