1|Page
Nursing-Health Sciences CEA Prep Full Practice
Exam||Verified Exam!!!||, NCLEX-RN/PN Readiness
Programs, 2026/2027-Question Comprehensive Exit
Assessment with Verified Answers||Newest Exam!!!
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40%
who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been
diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and
received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the
left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who
will manage this patient after discharge, which medication
strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's
care? - Answer-Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram
and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective
mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since most patients are not
eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing
their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3
months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is
required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is
needed at discharge to provide a baseline for
improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
,2|Page
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months
minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit
for this patient as presented.
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up
examination. She is a smoker, and her hypertension is
now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother
died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lipid profile
shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200.
In addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle changes, the
nurse practitioner should start the patient on: - Answer-a
statin drug.
Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol
absorption inhibitors may be useful in reducing ASVD risk,
but for a patient who is an active smoker with premature
coronary disease history (less than age 65 for women),
has hypertension and is far from an LDL goal, this patient
is most certainly a candidate for statin therapy, which
represents the most aggressive therapy option of these
four listed.
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly
caused by uncontrolled hypertension? - Answer-Peripheral
neuropathy
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Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently
have peripheral neuropathy, it is only directly attributed to
patients who are also diabetic and is commonly found in
non-hypertensive diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking,
and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by uncontrolled
hypertension.
A 33-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual
cycles, hirsutism, and obesity. Laboratory tests reveal
elevated serum testosterone and LH ratio > 2:1. What is
the most appropriate initial treatment? - Answer-Oral
contraceptives
Rationale: These are classic symptoms of polycystic
ovarian syndrome and the patient should be treated with
oral contraceptives to help stabilize their estrogen and
progesterone. Additionally, they may be managed on
metformin and/or spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first
pharmacological treatment for polycystic ovary syndrome
(PCOS) because they help manage in several ways:
Menstrual irregularities: OCPs can help regulate menstrual
cycles, making periods lighter and more regular. This is
important because irregular ovulation can lead to
endometrial hyperplasia, which is a buildup of uterine
tissue that can increase the risk of uterine cancer.
, 4|Page
Androgen excess: OCPs can reduce androgen production
and increase sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), which
binds androgens. This can help reduce symptoms like
acne, hirsutism (unwanted body and facial hair), and
androgenic alopecia (male pattern baldness).
Endometrium protection: OCPs can protect the
endometrium by ensuring regular ovulation
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-
grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower
chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of
the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of
focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - Answer-Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
Nursing-Health Sciences CEA Prep Full Practice
Exam||Verified Exam!!!||, NCLEX-RN/PN Readiness
Programs, 2026/2027-Question Comprehensive Exit
Assessment with Verified Answers||Newest Exam!!!
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40%
who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been
diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and
received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the
left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who
will manage this patient after discharge, which medication
strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's
care? - Answer-Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram
and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective
mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since most patients are not
eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing
their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3
months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is
required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is
needed at discharge to provide a baseline for
improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
,2|Page
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months
minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit
for this patient as presented.
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up
examination. She is a smoker, and her hypertension is
now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother
died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lipid profile
shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200.
In addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle changes, the
nurse practitioner should start the patient on: - Answer-a
statin drug.
Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol
absorption inhibitors may be useful in reducing ASVD risk,
but for a patient who is an active smoker with premature
coronary disease history (less than age 65 for women),
has hypertension and is far from an LDL goal, this patient
is most certainly a candidate for statin therapy, which
represents the most aggressive therapy option of these
four listed.
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly
caused by uncontrolled hypertension? - Answer-Peripheral
neuropathy
,3|Page
Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently
have peripheral neuropathy, it is only directly attributed to
patients who are also diabetic and is commonly found in
non-hypertensive diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking,
and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by uncontrolled
hypertension.
A 33-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual
cycles, hirsutism, and obesity. Laboratory tests reveal
elevated serum testosterone and LH ratio > 2:1. What is
the most appropriate initial treatment? - Answer-Oral
contraceptives
Rationale: These are classic symptoms of polycystic
ovarian syndrome and the patient should be treated with
oral contraceptives to help stabilize their estrogen and
progesterone. Additionally, they may be managed on
metformin and/or spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first
pharmacological treatment for polycystic ovary syndrome
(PCOS) because they help manage in several ways:
Menstrual irregularities: OCPs can help regulate menstrual
cycles, making periods lighter and more regular. This is
important because irregular ovulation can lead to
endometrial hyperplasia, which is a buildup of uterine
tissue that can increase the risk of uterine cancer.
, 4|Page
Androgen excess: OCPs can reduce androgen production
and increase sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), which
binds androgens. This can help reduce symptoms like
acne, hirsutism (unwanted body and facial hair), and
androgenic alopecia (male pattern baldness).
Endometrium protection: OCPs can protect the
endometrium by ensuring regular ovulation
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-
grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower
chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of
the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of
focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - Answer-Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
