PACKRAT 2 2026 STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE
PHYSICIAN ASSISTANT BOARD REVIEW AND
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
◉ A 75 year-old woman presents to the office with complaint of
vision loss. Examination reveals a palpable cord in the temporal
region. Which of the following is the most helpful initial test to order
on this patient?
A. Carotid ultrasound
B. Chest x-ray
C. Complete blood count
D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Answer: (u) A. See D for
explanation.
(u) B. See D for explanation.
(u) C. See D for explanation.
(c) D. The patient is suspected of having temporal arteritis. This
disease is most commonly noted in patients over age 50 and should
be suspected in patients with sudden vision loss and a palpable cord
in the temporal region. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is almost
always increased in this disease.
◉ What is the recommended target LDL to reduce the risk of
coronary artery disease in a diabetic patient?
,A. 200 mg/dL
B. 160 mg/dL
C. 130 mg/dL
D. 100 mg/dL. Answer: (u) A. See D for explanation.
(u) B. See D for explanation.
(u) C. See D for explanation.
(c) D. The National Cholesterol Education Program clinical practice
guidelines have designated diabetes as a coronary risk equivalent
and have recommended that patients with diabetes should have an
LDL cholesterol goal of 100 mg/dL.
◉ Which of the following best describes the purpose of intravenous
magnesium sulfate in patients with preeclampsia?
A. Prevention of convulsions
B. Prevention of HELLP syndrome
C. Lowering of blood pressure
D. Reversal of proteinuria. Answer: (c) A. Magnesium sulfate is used
to prevent and treat eclamptic seizures. Magnesium sulfate is not
sufficient to treat hypertension, therefore antihypertensives must be
added. Magnesium sulfate is excreted solely from the kidneys and
urine output must be preserved to prevent accumulation of the drug.
Magnesium sulfate does nothing to prevent HELLP syndrome.
(u) B. See A for explanation.
(u) C. See A for explanation.
,(u) D. See A for explanation.
◉ A 53 year-old male with history of hypertension presents
complaining of recent 4/10 left-sided chest pain with exertion that
is relieved with rest. He states the pain usually lasts approximately 4
minutes and is relieved with rest. Heart examination reveals regular
rate and rhythm with no S3, S4, or murmur. Lungs are clear to
auscultation bilaterally. Electrocardiogram reveals no acute changes.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the
evaluation of this patient?
A. Cardiac catheterization
B. CT Angiogram of the chest
C. Echocardiogram
D. Nuclear stress test. Answer: (u) A. This patient has signs and
symptoms consistent with stable angina. Noninvasive diagnostic
testing is preferred in this patient.
(u) B. CT angiogram may be useful for the evaluation of chest pain,
however its role in routine practice has not been established.
(u) C. This patient has signs and symptoms of stable angina. There
are no signs of valvular heart disease on examination. While an
echocardiogram may be performed at some point, it is not the best
initial diagnostic step to determine the etiology of the patient's
angina.
(c) D. Nuclear stress testing is the most appropriate initial diagnostic
study in the evaluation of a patient with signs and symptoms
consistent with stable angina.
, ◉ A 36 year-old African American female comes to the clinic for an
insurance physical which requires a chest x-ray. She denies any
respiratory symptoms. Examination of her chest is negative. X-ray
results show marked lymphadenopathy in the right paratracheal
region. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) levels are elevated.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Lymphoma. Answer: (c) A. Sarcoidosis is characterized by
paratracheal lymphadenopathy and elevated ACE levels. It is more
common in African American patients and may be asymptomatic.
(u) B. See A for explanation.
(u) C. See A for explanation.
(u) D. See A for explanation.
◉ A 33 year-old male presents to your office with a complaint of
right knee injury associated with pain and swelling. He states he was
running after his loose dog and suddenly stopped, hyperextended
his knee, heard a pop and noticed immediate swelling. On physical
examination, the Lachman test and anterior drawer test
demonstrates joint laxity. Which of the following ligaments is most
likely injured?
A. Medial collateral
PHYSICIAN ASSISTANT BOARD REVIEW AND
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
◉ A 75 year-old woman presents to the office with complaint of
vision loss. Examination reveals a palpable cord in the temporal
region. Which of the following is the most helpful initial test to order
on this patient?
A. Carotid ultrasound
B. Chest x-ray
C. Complete blood count
D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Answer: (u) A. See D for
explanation.
(u) B. See D for explanation.
(u) C. See D for explanation.
(c) D. The patient is suspected of having temporal arteritis. This
disease is most commonly noted in patients over age 50 and should
be suspected in patients with sudden vision loss and a palpable cord
in the temporal region. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is almost
always increased in this disease.
◉ What is the recommended target LDL to reduce the risk of
coronary artery disease in a diabetic patient?
,A. 200 mg/dL
B. 160 mg/dL
C. 130 mg/dL
D. 100 mg/dL. Answer: (u) A. See D for explanation.
(u) B. See D for explanation.
(u) C. See D for explanation.
(c) D. The National Cholesterol Education Program clinical practice
guidelines have designated diabetes as a coronary risk equivalent
and have recommended that patients with diabetes should have an
LDL cholesterol goal of 100 mg/dL.
◉ Which of the following best describes the purpose of intravenous
magnesium sulfate in patients with preeclampsia?
A. Prevention of convulsions
B. Prevention of HELLP syndrome
C. Lowering of blood pressure
D. Reversal of proteinuria. Answer: (c) A. Magnesium sulfate is used
to prevent and treat eclamptic seizures. Magnesium sulfate is not
sufficient to treat hypertension, therefore antihypertensives must be
added. Magnesium sulfate is excreted solely from the kidneys and
urine output must be preserved to prevent accumulation of the drug.
Magnesium sulfate does nothing to prevent HELLP syndrome.
(u) B. See A for explanation.
(u) C. See A for explanation.
,(u) D. See A for explanation.
◉ A 53 year-old male with history of hypertension presents
complaining of recent 4/10 left-sided chest pain with exertion that
is relieved with rest. He states the pain usually lasts approximately 4
minutes and is relieved with rest. Heart examination reveals regular
rate and rhythm with no S3, S4, or murmur. Lungs are clear to
auscultation bilaterally. Electrocardiogram reveals no acute changes.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the
evaluation of this patient?
A. Cardiac catheterization
B. CT Angiogram of the chest
C. Echocardiogram
D. Nuclear stress test. Answer: (u) A. This patient has signs and
symptoms consistent with stable angina. Noninvasive diagnostic
testing is preferred in this patient.
(u) B. CT angiogram may be useful for the evaluation of chest pain,
however its role in routine practice has not been established.
(u) C. This patient has signs and symptoms of stable angina. There
are no signs of valvular heart disease on examination. While an
echocardiogram may be performed at some point, it is not the best
initial diagnostic step to determine the etiology of the patient's
angina.
(c) D. Nuclear stress testing is the most appropriate initial diagnostic
study in the evaluation of a patient with signs and symptoms
consistent with stable angina.
, ◉ A 36 year-old African American female comes to the clinic for an
insurance physical which requires a chest x-ray. She denies any
respiratory symptoms. Examination of her chest is negative. X-ray
results show marked lymphadenopathy in the right paratracheal
region. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) levels are elevated.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Lymphoma. Answer: (c) A. Sarcoidosis is characterized by
paratracheal lymphadenopathy and elevated ACE levels. It is more
common in African American patients and may be asymptomatic.
(u) B. See A for explanation.
(u) C. See A for explanation.
(u) D. See A for explanation.
◉ A 33 year-old male presents to your office with a complaint of
right knee injury associated with pain and swelling. He states he was
running after his loose dog and suddenly stopped, hyperextended
his knee, heard a pop and noticed immediate swelling. On physical
examination, the Lachman test and anterior drawer test
demonstrates joint laxity. Which of the following ligaments is most
likely injured?
A. Medial collateral
