NUR 529 EXAM 2/ UPDATE SET TEST QUESTIONS AND REVISED CORRECT ANSWERS |
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Question 1
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the three stages of hemostasis?
A) Blood coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular constriction
B) Vascular constriction, formation of platelet plug, blood coagulation
C) Formation of platelet plug, blood coagulation, clot retraction
D) Vascular constriction, fibrinolysis, platelet aggregation
E) Agglutination, coagulation, vascular spasm
Correct Answer: B) Vascular constriction, formation of platelet plug, blood coagulation
Rationale: Hemostasis occurs in three distinct stages to prevent blood loss. First, immediate
vascular constriction reduces blood flow to the injured area. Second, platelets adhere to the
injury site to form a temporary plug. Finally, the coagulation cascade is activated to form a
stable fibrin clot.
Question 2
A patient presents with spontaneous bleeding from the gums and small red spots on the skin. The
nurse understands that bleeding associated with platelet disorders typically reflects:
A) An increase in clotting factor consumption
B) A decrease in platelet number or impaired platelet function
C) An overproduction of vitamin K by intestinal flora
D) A deficiency in plasma proteins like fibrinogen
E) Decreased vascular resistance in large arteries
Correct Answer: B) A decrease in platelet number or impaired platelet function
Rationale: Bleeding in platelet disorders is caused by three primary issues: decreased
production (bone marrow dysfunction), increased destruction (thrombocytopenia), or
impaired function (thrombocytopathia). These usually manifest as bleeding in small vessels
of the skin and mucous membranes.
Question 3
Which physical assessment finding is seen exclusively in conditions of platelet deficiency
(thrombocytopenia) rather than platelet dysfunction?
A) Ecchymosis
B) Hemarthrosis
C) Petechiae
D) Purpura
E) Hematoma
Correct Answer: C) petechiae
Rationale: According to the study material, petechiae (pinpoint red/purple spots) are seen
exclusively in conditions where there is a deficiency in the number of platelets, not just a
functional impairment (thrombocytopathia).
, 2
Question 4
A laboratory report identifies a patient’s platelet count as 110,000 cells/µL. How should the nurse
classify this finding?
A) Normal
B) Thrombocytopathia
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Polycythemia
E) Leukocytosis
Correct Answer: C) thrombocytopenia
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is defined as a platelet count of less than 150,000 cells/µL.
This can result from decreased production, increased splenic sequestration, or decreased
survival of the platelets.
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT listed as one of the four primary causes of anemia?
A) Excessive loss of RBCs from bleeding
B) Destruction (hemolysis) of RBCs
C) Overproduction of erythropoietin
D) Defective RBC production
E) Bone marrow failure
Correct Answer: C) Overproduction of erythropoietin
Rationale: The four primary causes of anemia are blood loss, hemolysis (destruction),
defective production (nutritional/genetic), or inadequate production (bone marrow failure).
Overproduction of erythropoietin would typically lead to polycythemia (too many RBCs),
not anemia.
Question 6
A patient is diagnosed with Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA). What are the characteristic
morphologic features of the red blood cells on a peripheral smear?
A) Macrocytic and hyperchromic
B) Normocytic and normochromic
C) Microcytic and hypochromic
D) Macrocytic and misshaped
E) Sickle-shaped and rigid
Correct Answer: C) microcytic and hypochromic
Rationale: In IDA, the lack of iron prevents sufficient hemoglobin synthesis. This results in
red blood cells that are smaller than normal (microcytic) and have a pale color
(hypochromic) due to the reduced hemoglobin concentration.
Question 7
Megaloblastic anemias, such as those caused by Vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency, are
, 3
characterized by which type of RBCs?
A) Small and pale
B) Macrocytic and misshaped
C) Sickle-shaped
D) Biconcave and flexible
E) Fragmented schistocytes
Correct Answer: B) macrocytic and misshaped
Rationale: Megaloblastic anemias involve impaired DNA synthesis, which leads to the
production of abnormally large (macrocytic) and often oval-shaped or misshaped red blood
cells.
Question 8
What is the primary pathophysiological difference between blood loss anemia and hemolytic
anemia?
A) Blood loss anemia retains iron in the body; hemolytic anemia loses it.
B) Blood loss anemia involves RBC destruction; hemolytic anemia involves RBC bleeding.
C) Blood loss anemia is characterized by a loss of iron-containing cells from the body; hemolytic
anemia involves RBC destruction where iron is retained.
D) Hemolytic anemia only occurs after major trauma.
E) There is no difference; both lead to identical iron levels.
Correct Answer: C) blood loss anemia is characterized by loss of iron containing blood cells
in body; hemolytic anemia is characterized by destruction of RBC in the body with iron
being retained
Rationale: In bleeding, the entire cell—and the iron within it—leaves the body. In
hemolysis, the cell breaks down inside the body, allowing the iron to be recycled and stored,
potentially leading to iron overload.
Question 9
In an adult male or postmenopausal woman, the most common cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia
(IDA) that must be ruled out is:
A) Excessive exercise
B) Menstruation
C) GI bleeding from a peptic ulcer or cancer
D) High intake of cow's milk
E) Fetal development
Correct Answer: C) men/postmenopausal women: GI bleed from peptic ulcer, vascular
lesions, intestinal polyps, hemorrhoids, or cancer
Rationale: Unlike premenopausal women (who lose iron via menses), iron deficiency in men
and older women is highly suspicious for occult gastrointestinal bleeding, often requiring a
workup for malignancy or ulcers.
, 4
Question 10
A mother brings her 12-month-old infant to the clinic and mentions the child drinks mostly cow's
milk. The nurse explains this puts the child at risk for IDA because:
A) Cow's milk destroys red blood cells.
B) Cow's milk is low in absorbable iron.
C) Cow's milk increases blood volume too rapidly.
D) Infants do not need iron until age 3.
E) Cow's milk inhibits the bone marrow.
Correct Answer: B) low iron levels at birth... and a diet consisting mainly of cow's milk (low
in absorbable iron)
Rationale: Infancy is a period of rapid growth and increasing blood volume. Cow's milk is a
poor source of iron compared to breast milk or iron-fortified formula, making nutritional
IDA common in this age group.
Question 11
What is the typical incubation period for Infectious Mononucleosis?
A) 2-3 days
B) 1 week
C) 4-6 weeks
D) 6 months
E) 1 year
Correct Answer: C) 4-6 weeks
Rationale: Infectious Mononucleosis has an insidious onset with a long incubation period
(4–6 weeks) between initial exposure to the Epstein-Barr virus and the development of
clinical symptoms.
Question 12
A 19-year-old college student with Infectious Mononucleosis is advised to avoid contact sports
for at least 3 weeks. What is the rationale for this education?
A) To prevent the spread of the virus to teammates
B) Because of the risk of splenic rupture due to splenomegaly
C) To avoid worsening the patient's fever
D) To prevent the development of Reed-Sternberg cells
E) Because the patient is too tired to play
Correct Answer: B) splenomegaly... rupture is rare; educate to avoid contact sports
Rationale: The spleen enlarges significantly (2–3 times normal size) in up to 60% of
mononucleosis cases. Although rare, a blow to the abdomen during sports could cause the
capsule to rupture, leading to life-threatening hemorrhage.
Question 13
Which laboratory finding is considered a hallmark diagnostic indicator for Infectious
ALREADY PASSED/GET IT 100% ACCURATE!!
Question 1
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the three stages of hemostasis?
A) Blood coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular constriction
B) Vascular constriction, formation of platelet plug, blood coagulation
C) Formation of platelet plug, blood coagulation, clot retraction
D) Vascular constriction, fibrinolysis, platelet aggregation
E) Agglutination, coagulation, vascular spasm
Correct Answer: B) Vascular constriction, formation of platelet plug, blood coagulation
Rationale: Hemostasis occurs in three distinct stages to prevent blood loss. First, immediate
vascular constriction reduces blood flow to the injured area. Second, platelets adhere to the
injury site to form a temporary plug. Finally, the coagulation cascade is activated to form a
stable fibrin clot.
Question 2
A patient presents with spontaneous bleeding from the gums and small red spots on the skin. The
nurse understands that bleeding associated with platelet disorders typically reflects:
A) An increase in clotting factor consumption
B) A decrease in platelet number or impaired platelet function
C) An overproduction of vitamin K by intestinal flora
D) A deficiency in plasma proteins like fibrinogen
E) Decreased vascular resistance in large arteries
Correct Answer: B) A decrease in platelet number or impaired platelet function
Rationale: Bleeding in platelet disorders is caused by three primary issues: decreased
production (bone marrow dysfunction), increased destruction (thrombocytopenia), or
impaired function (thrombocytopathia). These usually manifest as bleeding in small vessels
of the skin and mucous membranes.
Question 3
Which physical assessment finding is seen exclusively in conditions of platelet deficiency
(thrombocytopenia) rather than platelet dysfunction?
A) Ecchymosis
B) Hemarthrosis
C) Petechiae
D) Purpura
E) Hematoma
Correct Answer: C) petechiae
Rationale: According to the study material, petechiae (pinpoint red/purple spots) are seen
exclusively in conditions where there is a deficiency in the number of platelets, not just a
functional impairment (thrombocytopathia).
, 2
Question 4
A laboratory report identifies a patient’s platelet count as 110,000 cells/µL. How should the nurse
classify this finding?
A) Normal
B) Thrombocytopathia
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Polycythemia
E) Leukocytosis
Correct Answer: C) thrombocytopenia
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is defined as a platelet count of less than 150,000 cells/µL.
This can result from decreased production, increased splenic sequestration, or decreased
survival of the platelets.
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT listed as one of the four primary causes of anemia?
A) Excessive loss of RBCs from bleeding
B) Destruction (hemolysis) of RBCs
C) Overproduction of erythropoietin
D) Defective RBC production
E) Bone marrow failure
Correct Answer: C) Overproduction of erythropoietin
Rationale: The four primary causes of anemia are blood loss, hemolysis (destruction),
defective production (nutritional/genetic), or inadequate production (bone marrow failure).
Overproduction of erythropoietin would typically lead to polycythemia (too many RBCs),
not anemia.
Question 6
A patient is diagnosed with Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA). What are the characteristic
morphologic features of the red blood cells on a peripheral smear?
A) Macrocytic and hyperchromic
B) Normocytic and normochromic
C) Microcytic and hypochromic
D) Macrocytic and misshaped
E) Sickle-shaped and rigid
Correct Answer: C) microcytic and hypochromic
Rationale: In IDA, the lack of iron prevents sufficient hemoglobin synthesis. This results in
red blood cells that are smaller than normal (microcytic) and have a pale color
(hypochromic) due to the reduced hemoglobin concentration.
Question 7
Megaloblastic anemias, such as those caused by Vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency, are
, 3
characterized by which type of RBCs?
A) Small and pale
B) Macrocytic and misshaped
C) Sickle-shaped
D) Biconcave and flexible
E) Fragmented schistocytes
Correct Answer: B) macrocytic and misshaped
Rationale: Megaloblastic anemias involve impaired DNA synthesis, which leads to the
production of abnormally large (macrocytic) and often oval-shaped or misshaped red blood
cells.
Question 8
What is the primary pathophysiological difference between blood loss anemia and hemolytic
anemia?
A) Blood loss anemia retains iron in the body; hemolytic anemia loses it.
B) Blood loss anemia involves RBC destruction; hemolytic anemia involves RBC bleeding.
C) Blood loss anemia is characterized by a loss of iron-containing cells from the body; hemolytic
anemia involves RBC destruction where iron is retained.
D) Hemolytic anemia only occurs after major trauma.
E) There is no difference; both lead to identical iron levels.
Correct Answer: C) blood loss anemia is characterized by loss of iron containing blood cells
in body; hemolytic anemia is characterized by destruction of RBC in the body with iron
being retained
Rationale: In bleeding, the entire cell—and the iron within it—leaves the body. In
hemolysis, the cell breaks down inside the body, allowing the iron to be recycled and stored,
potentially leading to iron overload.
Question 9
In an adult male or postmenopausal woman, the most common cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia
(IDA) that must be ruled out is:
A) Excessive exercise
B) Menstruation
C) GI bleeding from a peptic ulcer or cancer
D) High intake of cow's milk
E) Fetal development
Correct Answer: C) men/postmenopausal women: GI bleed from peptic ulcer, vascular
lesions, intestinal polyps, hemorrhoids, or cancer
Rationale: Unlike premenopausal women (who lose iron via menses), iron deficiency in men
and older women is highly suspicious for occult gastrointestinal bleeding, often requiring a
workup for malignancy or ulcers.
, 4
Question 10
A mother brings her 12-month-old infant to the clinic and mentions the child drinks mostly cow's
milk. The nurse explains this puts the child at risk for IDA because:
A) Cow's milk destroys red blood cells.
B) Cow's milk is low in absorbable iron.
C) Cow's milk increases blood volume too rapidly.
D) Infants do not need iron until age 3.
E) Cow's milk inhibits the bone marrow.
Correct Answer: B) low iron levels at birth... and a diet consisting mainly of cow's milk (low
in absorbable iron)
Rationale: Infancy is a period of rapid growth and increasing blood volume. Cow's milk is a
poor source of iron compared to breast milk or iron-fortified formula, making nutritional
IDA common in this age group.
Question 11
What is the typical incubation period for Infectious Mononucleosis?
A) 2-3 days
B) 1 week
C) 4-6 weeks
D) 6 months
E) 1 year
Correct Answer: C) 4-6 weeks
Rationale: Infectious Mononucleosis has an insidious onset with a long incubation period
(4–6 weeks) between initial exposure to the Epstein-Barr virus and the development of
clinical symptoms.
Question 12
A 19-year-old college student with Infectious Mononucleosis is advised to avoid contact sports
for at least 3 weeks. What is the rationale for this education?
A) To prevent the spread of the virus to teammates
B) Because of the risk of splenic rupture due to splenomegaly
C) To avoid worsening the patient's fever
D) To prevent the development of Reed-Sternberg cells
E) Because the patient is too tired to play
Correct Answer: B) splenomegaly... rupture is rare; educate to avoid contact sports
Rationale: The spleen enlarges significantly (2–3 times normal size) in up to 60% of
mononucleosis cases. Although rare, a blow to the abdomen during sports could cause the
capsule to rupture, leading to life-threatening hemorrhage.
Question 13
Which laboratory finding is considered a hallmark diagnostic indicator for Infectious
