1. When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to
the fetus.
D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization.
Answer: A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells
and B cells.
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune response, which is
carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response, which is controlled by activated B cells
and antibodies.
2. A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can
manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state
C) Minimally conscious
D) Locked-in syndrome
Answer: C) Minimally conscious
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally conscious state
,3. Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in
TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8
Answer: D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
4. Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions
Answer: C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
5. During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with general- ized anxiety
disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
,Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview
Answer: C) Inability to concen- trate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
6. The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty con- centrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly.
Answer: C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care. The characteristics of
schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts, suspiciousness, disorganized behavior,
and hallucinations.
7. The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing. The
mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection.The FNP suspects
that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media
Answer: A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensa- tion, and a recent
history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
, 8. What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth
Answer: A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over the age of 35
9. The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16
weeks gestation.The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio
Answer: C) Perform genetic studies
This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
10. In the most commonly seen form ofTurner Syndrome, how is the X chromo- some affected?
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome
Answer: A) Each cell has only one X chromsome 45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have
monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of the X chromosome in each cell.
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to
the fetus.
D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization.
Answer: A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells
and B cells.
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune response, which is
carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response, which is controlled by activated B cells
and antibodies.
2. A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can
manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state
C) Minimally conscious
D) Locked-in syndrome
Answer: C) Minimally conscious
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally conscious state
,3. Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in
TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8
Answer: D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
4. Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions
Answer: C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
5. During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with general- ized anxiety
disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
,Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview
Answer: C) Inability to concen- trate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
6. The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty con- centrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly.
Answer: C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care. The characteristics of
schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts, suspiciousness, disorganized behavior,
and hallucinations.
7. The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing. The
mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection.The FNP suspects
that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media
Answer: A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensa- tion, and a recent
history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
, 8. What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth
Answer: A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over the age of 35
9. The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16
weeks gestation.The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio
Answer: C) Perform genetic studies
This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
10. In the most commonly seen form ofTurner Syndrome, how is the X chromo- some affected?
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome
Answer: A) Each cell has only one X chromsome 45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have
monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of the X chromosome in each cell.
