Hondros NUR 160 Exam 1 Prep (2026) Fundamentals II – ADPIE, Med-Admin &
Wound Care – Verified Q&A
This focused study guide is tailored specifically for Hondros College of Nursing students
preparing for the first exam in NUR 160: Fundamental Concepts of Practical Nursing
II. It provides a comprehensive review of the nursing process (ADPIE), focusing on the
critical assessment and planning phases required for clinical success. The material
includes verified practice questions and rationales for high-stakes topics like the 6 rights
of medication administration, sterile technique, and pressure injury staging. Updated for
the 2025/2026 curriculum, this guide helps bridge the gap between textbook theory and
the practical application needed to pass your first Fundamentals II assessment.
A nurse is preparing to exit a room of a patient on droplet precautions. Which piece
of PPE should be removed first?
A) Mask
B) Gown
C) Gloves
D) Goggles
C) Gloves
Rationale: The gloves are considered the most contaminated and are
always removed first in the doffing sequence to prevent cross-
contamination.
A patient is on airborne precautions for Tuberculosis. Which mask must the nurse wear
to enter the room?
A) Standard surgical mask
B) Face shield
C) N95 respirator
D) Simple cloth mask
C) N95 respirator
Rationale: Airborne particles are small enough to pass through
standard masks; an N95 respirator or PAPR is required to filter out
these particles.
,When doffing (removing) PPE, why is the mask removed last?
A) It is the cleanest part.
B) To prevent inhaling airborne particles while removing other contaminated
items.
C) It is the most difficult to take off.
D) So the nurse can see better while removing the gown.
B) To prevent inhaling airborne particles while removing other
contaminated items.
Rationale: The mask protects the respiratory tract; it should remain on
until you are away from the contaminated gown and gloves.
A patient is diagnosed with C. Diff. Which hand hygiene method is mandatory?
A) Alcohol-based hand rub.
B) Soap and water.
C) Using a dry towel to rub off germs.
D) Wearing gloves means hand hygiene isn't needed.
B) Soap and water.
Rationale: C. Diff spores are resistant to alcohol; they must be
physically washed off the hands with friction, soap, and running
water.
Which PPE is required for "Standard Precautions"?
A) Gown and gloves for every patient interaction.
B) N95 mask for every patient interaction.
C) Gloves when touching blood, body fluids, or non-intact skin.
D) No PPE is needed unless the patient has a known infection.
C) Gloves when touching blood, body fluids, or non-intact skin.
Rationale: Standard precautions are used for all patients regardless of
diagnosis when there is a potential risk of fluid contact.
Wound Care & Integumentary
A patient has a pressure injury that presents as an open blister with a red-pink wound
bed. What stage is this?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
, D) Stage 4
B) Stage 2
Rationale: Stage 2 involves partial-thickness loss of the dermis, often
presenting as an intact or ruptured blister or a shallow open ulcer.
Which laboratory value is the most specific indicator of a patient's nutritional status for
wound healing?
A) White Blood Cell (WBC) count
B) Hemoglobin
C) Pre-albumin
D) Creatinine
C) Pre-albumin
Rationale: Pre-albumin has a shorter half-life (2 days) than albumin (20
days), making it a much more sensitive indicator of current
nutritional status.
A nurse is caring for a patient with a surgical wound that has "eviscerated." What is the
immediate priority?
A) Push the organs back into the cavity gently.
B) Cover the area with sterile dressings soaked in sterile normal saline.
C) Place the patient in high-Fowler’s position immediately.
D) Administer an oral pain medication.
B) Cover the area with sterile dressings soaked in sterile normal saline.
Rationale: Evisceration is a medical emergency. Keeping the protruding
organs moist with sterile saline prevents tissue death while waiting
for surgery.
A nurse is using the Braden Scale to assess a patient. What is the nurse assessing for?
A) Risk for falls
B) Level of consciousness
C) Risk for pressure injuries
D) Ability to perform ADLs
C) Risk for pressure injuries
Rationale: The Braden Scale evaluates factors like sensory perception,
moisture, activity, and nutrition to determine skin breakdown risk.
, What is the first sign of a pressure injury in a light-skinned patient?
A) A deep purple or maroon area
B) A fluid-filled blister
C) Non-blanchable erythema
D) Skin that feels cool to the touch
C) Non-blanchable erythema
Rationale: Redness that does not turn white (blanch) when pressed is
the hallmark sign of a Stage 1 pressure injury.
A nurse is performing a "wet-to-damp" dressing change. What is the primary purpose of
this?
A) To keep the wound bed completely dry.
B) Mechanical debridement of necrotic tissue.
C) To stop active bleeding from a vessel.
D) To prevent scarring in the future.
B) Mechanical debridement of necrotic tissue.
Rationale: As the moist dressing dries slightly and is pulled away, it
removes dead tissue (slough) from the wound bed.
During the inflammatory phase of wound healing, what should the nurse expect to see?
A) Significant scar tissue formation.
B) New epithelial cells closing the wound.
C) Swelling, redness, and heat at the site.
D) The wound edges completely approximated and dry.
C) Swelling, redness, and heat at the site.
Rationale: These are classic signs of inflammation as the body sends
white blood cells to clean the area and prepare for new tissue
growth.
A patient has a suspected wound infection. Which test should be
performed before starting the first dose of antibiotics?
A) Chest X-ray
B) Wound Culture and Sensitivity
C) Hemoglobin A1C
D) Routine Urinalysis
B) Wound Culture and Sensitivity
Wound Care – Verified Q&A
This focused study guide is tailored specifically for Hondros College of Nursing students
preparing for the first exam in NUR 160: Fundamental Concepts of Practical Nursing
II. It provides a comprehensive review of the nursing process (ADPIE), focusing on the
critical assessment and planning phases required for clinical success. The material
includes verified practice questions and rationales for high-stakes topics like the 6 rights
of medication administration, sterile technique, and pressure injury staging. Updated for
the 2025/2026 curriculum, this guide helps bridge the gap between textbook theory and
the practical application needed to pass your first Fundamentals II assessment.
A nurse is preparing to exit a room of a patient on droplet precautions. Which piece
of PPE should be removed first?
A) Mask
B) Gown
C) Gloves
D) Goggles
C) Gloves
Rationale: The gloves are considered the most contaminated and are
always removed first in the doffing sequence to prevent cross-
contamination.
A patient is on airborne precautions for Tuberculosis. Which mask must the nurse wear
to enter the room?
A) Standard surgical mask
B) Face shield
C) N95 respirator
D) Simple cloth mask
C) N95 respirator
Rationale: Airborne particles are small enough to pass through
standard masks; an N95 respirator or PAPR is required to filter out
these particles.
,When doffing (removing) PPE, why is the mask removed last?
A) It is the cleanest part.
B) To prevent inhaling airborne particles while removing other contaminated
items.
C) It is the most difficult to take off.
D) So the nurse can see better while removing the gown.
B) To prevent inhaling airborne particles while removing other
contaminated items.
Rationale: The mask protects the respiratory tract; it should remain on
until you are away from the contaminated gown and gloves.
A patient is diagnosed with C. Diff. Which hand hygiene method is mandatory?
A) Alcohol-based hand rub.
B) Soap and water.
C) Using a dry towel to rub off germs.
D) Wearing gloves means hand hygiene isn't needed.
B) Soap and water.
Rationale: C. Diff spores are resistant to alcohol; they must be
physically washed off the hands with friction, soap, and running
water.
Which PPE is required for "Standard Precautions"?
A) Gown and gloves for every patient interaction.
B) N95 mask for every patient interaction.
C) Gloves when touching blood, body fluids, or non-intact skin.
D) No PPE is needed unless the patient has a known infection.
C) Gloves when touching blood, body fluids, or non-intact skin.
Rationale: Standard precautions are used for all patients regardless of
diagnosis when there is a potential risk of fluid contact.
Wound Care & Integumentary
A patient has a pressure injury that presents as an open blister with a red-pink wound
bed. What stage is this?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
, D) Stage 4
B) Stage 2
Rationale: Stage 2 involves partial-thickness loss of the dermis, often
presenting as an intact or ruptured blister or a shallow open ulcer.
Which laboratory value is the most specific indicator of a patient's nutritional status for
wound healing?
A) White Blood Cell (WBC) count
B) Hemoglobin
C) Pre-albumin
D) Creatinine
C) Pre-albumin
Rationale: Pre-albumin has a shorter half-life (2 days) than albumin (20
days), making it a much more sensitive indicator of current
nutritional status.
A nurse is caring for a patient with a surgical wound that has "eviscerated." What is the
immediate priority?
A) Push the organs back into the cavity gently.
B) Cover the area with sterile dressings soaked in sterile normal saline.
C) Place the patient in high-Fowler’s position immediately.
D) Administer an oral pain medication.
B) Cover the area with sterile dressings soaked in sterile normal saline.
Rationale: Evisceration is a medical emergency. Keeping the protruding
organs moist with sterile saline prevents tissue death while waiting
for surgery.
A nurse is using the Braden Scale to assess a patient. What is the nurse assessing for?
A) Risk for falls
B) Level of consciousness
C) Risk for pressure injuries
D) Ability to perform ADLs
C) Risk for pressure injuries
Rationale: The Braden Scale evaluates factors like sensory perception,
moisture, activity, and nutrition to determine skin breakdown risk.
, What is the first sign of a pressure injury in a light-skinned patient?
A) A deep purple or maroon area
B) A fluid-filled blister
C) Non-blanchable erythema
D) Skin that feels cool to the touch
C) Non-blanchable erythema
Rationale: Redness that does not turn white (blanch) when pressed is
the hallmark sign of a Stage 1 pressure injury.
A nurse is performing a "wet-to-damp" dressing change. What is the primary purpose of
this?
A) To keep the wound bed completely dry.
B) Mechanical debridement of necrotic tissue.
C) To stop active bleeding from a vessel.
D) To prevent scarring in the future.
B) Mechanical debridement of necrotic tissue.
Rationale: As the moist dressing dries slightly and is pulled away, it
removes dead tissue (slough) from the wound bed.
During the inflammatory phase of wound healing, what should the nurse expect to see?
A) Significant scar tissue formation.
B) New epithelial cells closing the wound.
C) Swelling, redness, and heat at the site.
D) The wound edges completely approximated and dry.
C) Swelling, redness, and heat at the site.
Rationale: These are classic signs of inflammation as the body sends
white blood cells to clean the area and prepare for new tissue
growth.
A patient has a suspected wound infection. Which test should be
performed before starting the first dose of antibiotics?
A) Chest X-ray
B) Wound Culture and Sensitivity
C) Hemoglobin A1C
D) Routine Urinalysis
B) Wound Culture and Sensitivity
