AMLS Certification Exam – Post-Test &
Final (200 Questions) | 2025/2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS
1. A 72-year-old female presents with sudden onset dyspnea, pink frothy sputum, and
hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pneumonia
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Acute pulmonary edema (correct answer)
D. COPD exacerbation
RATIONALE: Acute pulmonary edema presents with dyspnea, crackles, and pink frothy
sputum due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli from left ventricular failure.
2. A patient with DKA will most likely exhibit which respiratory pattern?
A. Cheyne-Stokes
B. Apneustic
C. Kussmaul respirations (correct answer)
D. Biot respirations
RATIONALE: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breathing that compensates for
metabolic acidosis in diabetic ketoacidosis.
,3. A 30-year-old male presents unresponsive with slow respirations and pinpoint pupils. What is
the priority intervention?
A. Glucose administration
B. Oxygen only
C. Naloxone administration (correct answer)
D. Intubation immediately
RATIONALE: The classic triad of opioid overdose includes respiratory depression, altered
mental status, and pinpoint pupils, requiring naloxone.
4. Which ECG change is most indicative of hyperkalemia?
A. Flattened T waves
B. U waves
C. Peaked T waves (correct answer)
D. Prolonged QT interval
RATIONALE: Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves due to altered cardiac
repolarization.
5. A septic patient remains hypotensive after fluid resuscitation. What is the next step?
A. Repeat fluids indefinitely
B. Start vasopressors (correct answer)
C. Administer diuretics
D. Delay treatment
RATIONALE: Persistent hypotension after fluids in sepsis indicates septic shock, requiring
vasopressors to maintain perfusion.
,6. Which condition commonly causes right ventricular strain?
A. Asthma
B. Pulmonary embolism (correct answer)
C. CHF
D. Pneumonia
RATIONALE: Pulmonary embolism increases pulmonary vascular resistance, leading to
right ventricular overload and strain.
7. A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL indicates:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia (correct answer)
C. Normal glucose
D. DKA
RATIONALE: A glucose level below 70 mg/dL is hypoglycemia; 45 mg/dL is critically low
and requires immediate treatment.
8. Which condition is most associated with warm, flushed skin in shock?
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Septic shock (correct answer)
D. Neurogenic shock
RATIONALE: Early septic shock causes vasodilation, resulting in warm, flushed skin.
9. A patient with chest pain and ST elevation is most likely experiencing:
A. Angina
, B. NSTEMI
C. STEMI (correct answer)
D. Pericarditis
RATIONALE: ST elevation indicates full-thickness myocardial infarction requiring
immediate reperfusion.
10. Which medication is indicated for anaphylaxis?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine (correct answer)
C. Albuterol
D. Aspirin
RATIONALE: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its
vasoconstrictive and bronchodilatory effects.
11. A patient presents with unilateral weakness and slurred speech. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Stroke (correct answer)
C. Seizure
D. Migraine
RATIONALE: Focal neurological deficits such as weakness and slurred speech are
hallmark signs of stroke.
12. Which acid-base imbalance is seen in hyperventilation?
A. Metabolic acidosis
Final (200 Questions) | 2025/2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS
1. A 72-year-old female presents with sudden onset dyspnea, pink frothy sputum, and
hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pneumonia
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Acute pulmonary edema (correct answer)
D. COPD exacerbation
RATIONALE: Acute pulmonary edema presents with dyspnea, crackles, and pink frothy
sputum due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli from left ventricular failure.
2. A patient with DKA will most likely exhibit which respiratory pattern?
A. Cheyne-Stokes
B. Apneustic
C. Kussmaul respirations (correct answer)
D. Biot respirations
RATIONALE: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breathing that compensates for
metabolic acidosis in diabetic ketoacidosis.
,3. A 30-year-old male presents unresponsive with slow respirations and pinpoint pupils. What is
the priority intervention?
A. Glucose administration
B. Oxygen only
C. Naloxone administration (correct answer)
D. Intubation immediately
RATIONALE: The classic triad of opioid overdose includes respiratory depression, altered
mental status, and pinpoint pupils, requiring naloxone.
4. Which ECG change is most indicative of hyperkalemia?
A. Flattened T waves
B. U waves
C. Peaked T waves (correct answer)
D. Prolonged QT interval
RATIONALE: Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves due to altered cardiac
repolarization.
5. A septic patient remains hypotensive after fluid resuscitation. What is the next step?
A. Repeat fluids indefinitely
B. Start vasopressors (correct answer)
C. Administer diuretics
D. Delay treatment
RATIONALE: Persistent hypotension after fluids in sepsis indicates septic shock, requiring
vasopressors to maintain perfusion.
,6. Which condition commonly causes right ventricular strain?
A. Asthma
B. Pulmonary embolism (correct answer)
C. CHF
D. Pneumonia
RATIONALE: Pulmonary embolism increases pulmonary vascular resistance, leading to
right ventricular overload and strain.
7. A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL indicates:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia (correct answer)
C. Normal glucose
D. DKA
RATIONALE: A glucose level below 70 mg/dL is hypoglycemia; 45 mg/dL is critically low
and requires immediate treatment.
8. Which condition is most associated with warm, flushed skin in shock?
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Septic shock (correct answer)
D. Neurogenic shock
RATIONALE: Early septic shock causes vasodilation, resulting in warm, flushed skin.
9. A patient with chest pain and ST elevation is most likely experiencing:
A. Angina
, B. NSTEMI
C. STEMI (correct answer)
D. Pericarditis
RATIONALE: ST elevation indicates full-thickness myocardial infarction requiring
immediate reperfusion.
10. Which medication is indicated for anaphylaxis?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine (correct answer)
C. Albuterol
D. Aspirin
RATIONALE: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its
vasoconstrictive and bronchodilatory effects.
11. A patient presents with unilateral weakness and slurred speech. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Stroke (correct answer)
C. Seizure
D. Migraine
RATIONALE: Focal neurological deficits such as weakness and slurred speech are
hallmark signs of stroke.
12. Which acid-base imbalance is seen in hyperventilation?
A. Metabolic acidosis
