EET Civil Construction PE Conceptual Questions and Correct Answers Exam 2026

CIVIL EET Civil Construction PE Conceptual Questions and Correct Answers Exam 2026 The fineness modulus of three sand samples (A, B, and C) are 2.3, 2.5, and 2.7, respectively. Which of the following statements is correct: A) B is finer than A B) C is finer than B C) A is finer than C D) Both A and B C. The larger fineness modulus means coarser aggregates If concrete beams are not available to measure modulus of rupture, the tensile strength of concrete is directly measured by _______ test. split tensile What is the main reason of using fly ash in concrete? A) Reducing cement volume B) Higher stiffness C) Faster gain of compressive strength D) Lighter concrete A. The main reason is reducing the volume of cement needed. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about effect of fly ash on concrete properties? A) Increase of workability B) Earlier gain strength C) Reduction of air content D) Reduction in water B. Fly ash replaces cement therefore reduces the rate of strength gain or delays the strength gain. Ready-mixed 4000-psi concrete being delivered to a jobsite is found by the third-party inspector to have a slump less than the 6 in. specified. Which of the following is the most appropriate corrective action? A) Decrease the amount of water in the mix before the truck leaves the ready-mix plant. B) Increase the water to the mix in the truck at the jobsite before the concrete is poured. C) Increase the rotation speed of the mixing drum while the truck is in transit to the jobsite. D) Add an admixture to the mix in the truck at the jobsite before the concrete is poured. CIVIL CIVIL D. The w/cm ratio cannot be altered, while the number of drum revolutions can affect slump and entrained air content. Therefore, keeping a consistent number of revolutions (typically limited to 300 revolutions) on a specific mixture and project helps the ready-mix producer consistently compensate for any such changes. More importantly, operating a drum at high speeds when driving is a serious safety risk Increase of carbon content of steel will result in: A) Increase in toughness B) Decrease in modulus of elasticity C) Increase in tensile strength D) Increase in energy needed to break samples of the steel c - Increase in carbon content increases tensile strength Plywood consists of multiple plies with the grain of each layer running in ________ directions opposite After the placement of a reinforced concrete wall in a commercial building, the owner suspects internal defects in the structural element due to the low slump of concrete and wants to examine this possibility. No damage to the structure is allowed by the engineer. Which test method can be used to identify the potential internal defects? Select all that apply. A) Impact-echo B) Sounding C) Infrared thermography D) Impulse response E) Probe penetration A&D According to the Nondestructive Test Methods for concrete table Section 2.5.3.2 of the NCEES Civil Reference Handbook, internal defects can be identified by impact-echo, ultrasonic and impulse response. The project's specification for cast-in-place concrete requires a f'c of 3000-psi. Which of the following individual test breaks (psi) indicate(s) a failure? A) 2900 B) 3000 C) 3400 D) None of the above D It is important to understand that an individual test falling below ƒ´c does not necessarily constitute a failure to meet specification requirements. When the average of strength tests on a job are at the required average strength, f'cr, the probability that individual CIVIL CIVIL strength tests will be less than the specified strength is about 10% and this is accounted for in the acceptance criteria. When strength test results indicate that the concrete delivered fails to meet the requirements of the specification, it is important to recognize that the failure may be in the testing, not the concrete. This is especially true if the fabrication, handling, curing and testing of the cylinders are not conducted in accordance with standard procedures. Ready-mixed 4000-psi concrete being delivered to a jobsite is found by the third-party inspector to have a slump less than the 6 in. specified. Which of the following is the most appropriate corrective action? A) Decrease the amount of water in the mix before the truck leaves the ready-mix plant B) Increase the water to the mix in the truck at the jobsite before the concrete is poured C) Increase the rotation speed of the mixing drum while the truck is in transit to the jobsite D) Add an admixture to the mix in the truck at the jobsite before the concrete is poured D The w/cm ratio cannot be altered, while the number of drum revolutions can affect slump and entrained air content. Therefore, keeping a consistent number of revolutions (typically limited to 300 revolutions) on a specific mixture and project helps the ready-mix producer consistently compensate for any such changes. More importantly, operating a drum at high speeds when driving is a serious safety risk. A State DOT initiates a project to construct a maintenance facility for the housing of snow plows. The footprint of the building falls within state property however there is a need to store materials in an area past the property line of an adjacent privately owned facility. Which of the following is the most appropriate Right of Way action to take to complete the project? A) Temporary Easement B) Permanent Easement C) Property Acquisition D) No action required A The work which takes place within the adjacent property is temporary in nature and the current owner will maintain rights of the property and therefore a temporary easement would be required. Which of the following project management tools is used to evaluate a project's performance and progress by integrating the project scope, schedule and cost? A) Work breakdown structure (WBS) B) Performance Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) CIVIL CIVIL C) Six Sigma SIPOC Diagram D) Earned Value Management (EVM) D Earned Value Management is a project management tool used to evaluate a project's performance and progress by integrating the project scope, schedule and cost. The EVM method is used to determine the true value of a project's performance by comparing the planned value of the work to be done with the earned value of the work actually completed and the actual costs spent to complete the work A Class 1 cost estimate for the construction of a $130,000,000 office building may have an accuracy range ($) of: A) $7,800,000 B) $16,900,000 C) $19,500,000 D) $45,500,000 C Use the information found in the PE Handbook Cost Estimate Classification Matrix for Building and General Construction Industries table. Refer to the column labeled "Expected Accuracy Range (typical variation in low and high ranges at an 80% confidence interval)" to find the matching statement to the example. Class 1 expected accuracy range is found in the as Low: -3% to 5% and High: +3% to +10%. Using the maximum range of low 5% to high +10% finds a 15% spread between the accuracy, which is 15% of $130,000,000 = 19,500,000. What is the best way to minimize pollution and damage at a blasting site near structures or highways? A) Reduce the number of the holes in the ground B) Blasting Mats C) Keep the trees in place until the day before blasting D) Insofar as possible, blasting operations above ground shall be conducted between noon and sundown B When blasting is done in congested areas or in proximity to a structure, railway, or highway, or any other installation that may be damaged, the blaster shall take special precautions in the loading, delaying, initiation, and confinement of each blast with mats or other methods so as to control the throw of fragments, and thus prevent bodily injury to employees. In a cantilever retaining wall, if the soil's internal friction angle is increased, the active soil pressure exerted on the wall will ________. decrease The following equation can be used to verify this: K = (1 sinɸ)/(1+sinɸ) (HB Page #72) CIVIL CIVIL The Poisson's ratio of steel can be calculated if the modulus of elasticity and ________ are given. shear modulus The following equation can be used to determine the Poisson's ratio: G = E/(2(1+v)) (HB Page #28) There are 160 workers in a construction site. How many toilet seats are to be provided as a minimum at the job site to insure occupational health? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 B CFR 1926.51(c)(1) table for 20 or more 1 toilet seat per 40 workers The definition of the "snug-tight" condition for ASTM A325 and A490 bolts is most nearly: A) Pulled into firm contact B) Tightened with a spud torque wrench C) Skidmore-Wilhelm Calibration method D) Continuous Contact A From the RCSC Specification for Structural Joints Using High-Strength Bolts RESEARCH COUNCIL ON STRUCTURAL CONNECTIONS SECTION 8. INSTALLATION, Section 8.1: Snug tight is the condition that exists when all of the plies in a connection have been pulled into firm contact by the bolts in the joint and all of the bolts in the joint have been tightened sufficiently to prevent the removal of the nuts without the use of a wrench. A 1-1/4" diameter x 10-1/4" A-325 bolt is being tensioned and inspected using the turn of-the nut method. The tensioning condition is applied under bolt head and under nut where both faces are flat and normal to the bolt axis. The amount of turn of the nut after the nut is "snug tight" is most nearly: A) 1/3 B) 1/2 C) 2/3 D) 1 C AISC Steel Manual Section 16.2-54 Table 8.2 D=(10-1/4")/(1-1/4")=8.2D Which of the following statements regarding structural steel bolting are true: I. The shear plane is the plane between two or more pieces under load where the pieces tend to move parallel from each other, but in opposite directions CIVIL CIVIL II. The threads of a bolt may either be included in the shear plane or excluded from the shear plane III. The capacity of a bolt is greater with the threads excluded from the shear plane IV. The most commonly used bolt is an ASTM A325 3/4" bolt with the threads included in the shear plane A) I & II B) I, II, & III C) I, II, III, & IV D) none C Which of the following statements regarding structural steel bolting are true: I. In a slip-critical joint the bolts must be fully pretensioned to cause a clamping force between the connected elements II. This force develops frictional resistance between the connected elements III. The frictional resistance allows the joint to withstand loading without slipping into bearing against the body of the bolt, although the bolts must still be designed for bearing IV. The faying surfaces in slip-critical joints do not require special preparation A) I & II B) I, II, & III C) I, II, III, & IV D) none B The faying surfaces in slip-critical joints require special preparation You are working as a quality control representative for a contractor on a project. If you discover a potentially unsafe condition at the project site, the initial action you should take is to: A) Stop the construction of the project B) Report the condition to the contractor C) Report the condition to the owner D) Report the condition to OSHA B Taking care of unsafe conditions is the responsibility of the contractor. The contractor is the controlling employer on the job site Considering the flow of an incompressible fluid through a horizontal pipe, which of the following is a correct statement? Select all that apply. A) The energy grade line is always parallel to the centerline of the pipeline B) The energy grade line is always above the hydraulic grade line C) The energy grade line is always separated from the hydraulic grade line by velocity head D) The energy grade line is always below the hydraulic grade line CIVIL CIVIL B&C All of the following statements are true regarding a sheet piling wall as a method of water control Except for: A) Interlock leakage can be reduced by using grout to fill the interlocks B) The major weakness of the system is the joints between the sheet piles C) The length of the wall can be increased by welding or bolting sheet piles together D) Installation is possible within all types of soil, including boulder beds D It is not recommended to use sheet piling walls at project sites where boulder beds are anticipated, since the steel piles will be damaged during driving operations. What is the minimum duration of the protection period (days) of high-early strength partially loaded exposed concrete beams in cold weather made out of non-air entrained concrete? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 D Check PCA table 19-3A for duration of protection period for fresh concrete in cold weather. For Exposed partially loaded high strength concrete the minimum protection period is: 4 days for Air-entrained concrete 8 days minimum for non-air entrained concrete. Which of the following terms are similar to a SWPPP which is required by the EPA NPDES permit? I. Construction Best Practices Plan II. Sediment and Stormwater Plan III. Erosion, Sediment, and Pollution Prevention Plan; Erosion and Sediment Control Plan IV. Construction Site Best Management Practices Plan V. Erosion Control Plan and Best Management Practices A) I & II B) I, II, & III C) I, II, III, & IV D) I, II, III, IV, & V D Answer; all are true. The Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP) is part to the NPDES. A SWPPP can have different names throughout the country as guided by the general construction permit process. A SWPPP may also be called a "construction best practices plan," "sediment and stormwater plan," "erosion, sedimentation, and pollution prevention plan," or similar term. The SWPPP is generally required to comply with CIVIL CIVIL EPA's or the state's stormwater construction general permit. The SWPPP outlines the steps to take to comply with the terms and conditions of the construction general permit. Which of the following list of equipment should be used within 3-ft of a 250-ft long basement masonry wall when placing Aggregate Base Course fill material to achieve 95% compaction? A) Vibratory plate compactor B) Sheepsfoot Roller C) Vibrating compacting roller D) Pneumatic-tired roller A Vibrating compacting roller typically used for granular and mixed soil materials, are very heavy and too large to be used next to a building. Typically, a small hand operated tamper, vibratory plate compactor may be used. Temporary construction sediment and erosion control provisions are primarily intended to: A) Protect water quality and prevent streambank erosion B) Prevent slope failures during rain events C) Prevent property damage caused by construction D) Minimize the development of impervious surfaces A The primary purpose of erosion and sediment control provisions is to protect water quality and prevent streambank erosion. Since the mass curve is plotted from excavation and embankment quantities, the cut and fill between points at which any horizontal line cuts off a loop of the mass curve will exactly balance, called balancing line. What is indicated by the loop below the balancing line? A) Hauling from right to left B) Hauling from left to right C) Hauling from top to bottom D) Hauling from bottom to top A The loop below the balancing line indicates hauling from right to left Water is observed freely seeping from the exposed sides of a cut. The soil type is most likely to be? A) Type A B) Type B C) Type C D) Type D C CIVIL CIVIL What is the minimum distance from the edge of a trench that spoils can be stored? A) 1 ft B) 2 ft C) 3 ft D) 5 ft B The minimum distance from the edge of the trench is 2 ft. Slump test is conducted to measure concrete ________ consistency A twelve-story building is being constructed adjacent to a large residential area. The soil testing shows the top 15-ft of soil has low strength. However, a thick rocky layer exists below this 15 ft poor soil. The foundation type most suited for this site is most nearly: A) Shallow spread footing B) Driven piles C) Mat foundation D) Drilled piles D Comparing the 4 options provided: Shallow Spread footing is not suitable as the top 15 ft of soil has poor strength. Driven piles is not suitable for the adjacent residential area. Mat foundation is not suitable as the top 15 ft of soil has poor strength. Drilled piles is suitable option as there is a rocky layer below the poor soil layer and minimal noise and vibration is needed adjacent to residential area Which of the following heights are considered for determining the hydrostatic pressures on cofferdams during various stages of construction? A) Maximum probable height of water outside the cofferdam and water height inside of the cofferdam B) Maximum probable height of water inside the cofferdam and water height outside of the cofferdam C) A and B D) None of the above A The heights considered when determining the hydrostatic pressure on cofferdams during various stages of construction are the maximum probable height of water outside the cofferdam and the height of water inside the cofferdam. The height of water inside the cofferdam can change during construction, which will result in different hydrostatic pressures experienced by the cofferdam while it is in use. Holes are oversized in which type of bolting method? A) Slip critical bolting connections B) Bearing type bolting connections CIVIL CIVIL C) Above both cases D) None of the above cases A Slip critical: when the plates try to move due to shear, friction develops between the two surfaces. Friction would revisit the shear force. Such connections are known as slip critical connections. Holes are oversized since the bolt shaft need not to butt against the plates. Shear resistance is achieved through friction between plates. Tension in the bolts are proportional to the frictional resistance. Bearing Type connections: shear resistance is achieved by bolt shaft butting against the plates. Holes should not be oversized for bearing type connections. Bolts do not need to be tightened to a pre-specified tension. Bolts can be snug tight. What is the correct statement regarding "bid bond"? A) If the contractor is unable to complete the project, he would lose the bid bond B) If the contractor is unable to start the project, after the project has been awarded, he would lose the bid bond C) Performance bond is another name for bid bond D) Bid bond is part of the general liability insurance B Bid Bond: After winning a job, some contractors may decide not to accept the project. This happens due to various reasons. Sometimes during the bidding process, the contractor may get more lucrative projects. Hence he may not want to allocate resources to the project. Another reason, in some instances, material prices may go up after the bid has been awarded. All contractors need to provide a bid bond to the owner. If the contractor fails to accept the project after winning the bid, he would lose the bid bond money. Performance Bond: In some cases the contractor may not be able to complete the project after accepting the job. In this situation, he would lose the performance bond. Bid bond and performance bond are not the same A geotechnical engineer has indicated that piles would undergo negative skin friction. What statement is not correct regarding negative skin friction? A) Negative skin friction can occur due to settlement of soil and acts downward B) Negative skin friction is the process of pile being subjected to downward load C) Negative skin friction can occur due to lowering of groundwater level D) Negative skin friction in steel piles is higher than wood piles given all other parameters are the same D Pile driving generates skin friction and end bearing resistance on piles. Due to pile driving, loose sand and soft clay undergo settlement. When soil settles, downward moving soil particles would drag the pile down. This is called negative skin friction or down drag. Negative skin friction or down drag can occur due to lowering of groundwater level. When groundwater level goes down, effective stress goes up. Hence soil tend to settle. Skin friction in general is high on rough surfaces. Hence wood piles CIVIL CIVIL would have a higher skin friction than steel piles. Statements A, B, and C are correct. Statement D is incorrect. Note: Uplift is caused by positive skin friction (acting upwards). What statement regarding hard hats is true? A) Hard hats are mandatory in all construction sites B) Hard hats are used only as per direction of the site safety manager C) Hard hats are required only when there is potential for head injury D) Hard hats are required only in construction sites where elevated structures are involved C Per OSHA 1926.100(a) Employees working in areas where there is a possible danger of head injury from impact, or from falling or flying objects, or from electrical shock and burns, shall be protected by protective helmets. Compressive strength test results are primarily used to determine that the concrete mixture as delivered meets the requirements of the specified strength, f'c, in the job specification. Strength test results from cast cylinders may be used for: 1. Quality control 2. Acceptance for concrete placement 3. Estimating the concrete strength in a structure 4. Scheduling construction operations such as form removal 5. Evaluating the adequacy of curing 6. Frost protection afforded to the structure A) 1,3,4,5 B) 3,4,5,6 C) 1,2 4,5,6 D) 1,2,3,4,5,6 D Cylinders tested for acceptance and quality control are made and cured in accordance with procedures described for standard cured specimens in ASTM C31. For estimating the in place concrete strength, ASTM C 31 provides procedures for field-cured specimens. Cylindrical specimens are tested in accordance with ASTM C 39, Standard Test Method for Compressive Strength of Cylindrical Concrete Specimens. A test result is the average of at least two standard-cured strength specimens made from the same concrete sample and tested at the same age. In most cases strength requirements for concrete are at an age of 28 days. A Fall protection anchorage must support a minimum of _______ lbs load (per person) 5000 Which critical path project management tool is used to define the steps needed to complete a project, the personnel to work on each task, and the cost of each task? A) Work Breakdown Structure B) Gantt Chart CIVIL CIVIL C) Project network diagram D) A and C A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a project management tool used to define steps needed to complete a project, personnel to work on each task and cost of each task. WBS is often used to develop an overall project plan at the beginning of a project. A 12" x 18" concrete column has a reinforcement cage with minimum clear spacing of 3" between reinforcement. According to ASTM, the maximum acceptable aggregate size is nearly: A) 1.0 in. B) 1.5 in. C) 2.0 in. D) 2.5 in. C The first requirements is one-fifth of the minimum dimension between sides of the forms that is 12"/5 = 2.4". The second requirement is ¾ of the rebar spacing (clear) that is 3"(3/4) = 2.25". Therefore, maximum acceptable size among answers is 2.0 in In construction of a 10" x 15" beam, the rebar clear spacing is 2". What is maximum size of aggregate that can be used (per ACI)? A) 2.25" B) 2" C) 1.75" D) 1.0" D Maximum aggregate size is smaller of 1/5 of the narrowest beam size (10") that is 2", and ¾ of clear spacing of rebar (3/4 x 2" =1.5"), therefore it is 1.5". Which of the following statements is NOT correct about effect of fly ash on concrete properties? A) Increase of workability B) Earlier gain strength C) Reduction of air content D) Reduction in water B Fly ash replaces cement therefore reduces the rate of strength gain or delays the strength gain You are determining the unit hydrograph from an isolated storm event. The difference between the total runoff and the base flow is the: (A) Effective rainfall intensity (B) Runoff duration CIVIL CIVIL (C) Direct runoff (D) Peak runoff C Total runoff - base flow = direct runoff In NRCS method, Curve number determination depends on (A) Hydrologic soil group (B) Watershed soil cover type (C) Hydrologic Condition (D) All of the above D Select all that apply. Stormwater management has the following purpose:: (A) Attenuate peak flow (B) Maintain after urbanization peak flow (C) Water storage for longer period (D) Pollution control (E) All of the above A,C,D Which of the following statements is false? A) A stopping sight distance is defined as the sum of the perception-reaction distance and the braking distance. B) Superelevations are necessary for counteracting the effect of centrifugal forces on vehicles when travelling along a horizontal curve. C) Horizontal curves provide transitions between two tangent lengths of a roadway. D) For a vertical curve represented by a parabola, the rate of change of slope is not constant. D For a vertical curve, the rate of change of slope is constant During a design review, it was discovered that the minimum clearance to the town's historic tower located on the left side of the centerline (in front of the point of intersection of the two tangent lines) was not met. What method would you recommend to meet the minimum clearance, if the tangents are held fixed? Assume the radius point is to the right. A) Increase the central angle B) Increase the tangent distance C) Decrease the tangent distance D) Decrease the radius B Draw the tangents and the existing curve. To get more clearance between the existing alignment and the tower increase the length of the curve. That would result in a larger radius and would increase the tangent length CIVIL CIVIL Vertical curves are measured A) Horizontally B) Along the slope lines C) From BVC to PVI D) Along the curve line A Vertical curves are measured Horizontally When a retaining structure does not move either to the right or to the left of its initial position, the ratio of the effective horizontal stress to the effective vertical stress is generally represented by (A) K (B) K 0 (C) K a (D) K p B Since the retaining wall is not yielding, the condition is at rest Which of the following earth pressure theories consider the roughness of the back of the wall? (A) Rankine's active earth pressure theory (B) Rankine's passive earth pressure theory (C) Coulomb's earth pressure theory (D) All of the above C Rankine's theory does not consider the roughness between the wall and soil. Coulomb's theory does consider roughness If the groundwater table coincides with the ground level and the saturated unit weight of soil is 120 pcf, the effective stress (psf) at a depth of 6 ft below the ground level is most nearly: (A) 346 (B) 374 (C) 750 (D) 1094 A The effective stress = (120-62.4)*6 = 345.6 psf. If the groundwater table fluctuates, but it remains below the ground surface, the effective stress at any point below the groundwater table (A) increases with a rise of the groundwater table (B) decreases with a rise of the groundwater table. (C) tends to become zero with a rise of the groundwater table. (D) remains constant with a rise or fall of the groundwater table CIVIL CIVIL B When the water level fluctuates below ground surface, stresses at any point below groundwater table changes. Specifically, Effective stress increases with the drop of the water table (example 2 on page 4) and effective stress decreases with the rise of the water table. Select all that apply. Which of the following depends greatly on effective stress? (A) Soil compressibility (B) Soil shear strength (C) Soil Consolidation (D) Index properties of soil (E) Soil uniformity coefficient A,B,C Soil strength properties are mainly depending on the effective stress of the soil. Index properties (uniformity coefficient, moisture content) does not depend on the effective stress. Due to a surface load, the elastic settlement of the ground is caused by the deformation of soil (A) with a decrease in its water content. (B) with an increase in its water content. (C) without a change in its water content. (D) in its dry condition C Elastic settlement is a reversible and temporary process. The soil particles are not permanently rearranged, and the deformation is not associated with changes in water content. This is in contrast to consolidation settlement, where the soil undergoes both compression and a decrease in water content, leading to a more permanent settlement. The ultimate bearing capacity equation considers the following: (A) shape factors (B) depth factors (C) water table correction factors (D) all of the above D By analyzing this equation, we can find that the factors related to depth, shape and water table. In fairly loose foundation soil, what type of failure mode is expected? (A) General Shear Failure (B) Local Shear Failure (C) Punching Shear Failure (D) None of the above CIVIL CIVIL C Option (A) is correct for dense sands and stiff clays; (B) is correct for sands or clays of medium compaction. Punching shear failure can indeed occur in loose or soft clay soils. Select all that apply. Factors that cause instability in a slope and lead to failure are (A) Slope inclination angle increase (B) Proper drainage system including subsurface drains (C) Slope reinforcement (Geotextiles, nails etc) (D) Water table rises A,D Factors that cause slope instability: Due to water level rises, pore water pressure increases which results in effective stress and shear strength reduction. This reduction in shear strength contributes to a lower capacity of the soil to resist shear forces and makes the slope more susceptible to failure. Higher inclination angle reduces the stability number and hence factor of safety. Measures that increase slope stability: Slope Reinforcement: Using geosynthetic materials, such as geogrids or geotextiles, can reinforce the slope and enhance its stability. Soil nails or ground anchors may be employed to provide additional support to the slope. Surface Water Drainage: Proper drainage systems, such as surface channels, subsurface drains, and stormwater management practices, can help control water runoff Lifting Capacity of a crane: A) Increases with an increase in load radius B) Decreases with an increase in load radius and boom length C) Increases with an increase in boom length for a given load D) Is unrelated to load radius B In shored construction, which factors do not influence the length of time between pouring concrete and stripping the forms? I- Weather II- Project Specs III- Developed Concrete Strength IV- ACI 347 V- Project Schedule VI- Local Ordinances A) I and III B) I and IV C) II and III D) V and VI D CIVIL CIVIL According to ACI 347, which of the following statements about reshores is False? A) They are vertical and inclined support members designed to carry the weight of the formwork loads immediately above. B) They must be placed snugly under a stripped concrete slab C) They are installed only after a concrete slab is able to support its own weight D) They are placed after shores are removed A A 20 ft tall masonry wall is to be constructed. If the length of the wall is 25 ft, what are the dimensions of the Restricted Zone (L x W)? A) 24 x 29 B) 24 x 33 C) 28 x 29 D) 48 x 33 D Total Length (H+4) = 20 + 4 = 24 on both sides 24*2=48 Width (L+8)= 25 + 8 = 33 When using handrails (2 line handrail) and toe-boards as falling object protection, the distance between the middle rail and the toe-board is most nearly: A) 3.5 in B) 15 in C) 17.5 in D) 21 in C 1926.502(j)(3) 21-(5.5/2) = 17.5 A stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress shall be located in trench excavations that are 4 ft. (1.22m) or more in depth so as to require no more than ________ feet of lateral travel for employees. A) 10 B) 25 C) 30 D) none of the above B A 21 ft deep trench shield (trench box) must be designed by a: A) competent person B) machinist C) registered professional engineer D) certified welder C CIVIL CIVIL Which of the following would not be considered by OSHA to be a confined space? A) Manhole B) Pit C) Sewer Trunk Line D) Trench D For trenching in any type of soil, how far must a support or shield system extend above the top of the vertical cut side if there is sloping toward the cut? A) 12 in B) 18 in C) 24 in D) 30 in B When making dewatering calculations, the most critical aspect affecting dewatering time is the: A) Header pipe diameter B) Radius of influence C) Capacity of the well point system D) Soil permeability D Since groundwater flow is governed by Darcy's Law, which is directly related to permeability, soil permeability is the most critical aspect affecting dewatering time. Which of the following dewatering options are only used during groundwater exclusion? I) Sump Pumps II) Slurry Walls III) Steel Sheet Piles IV) Well Points V) Freeze Walls VI) Ejector Wells A) I, II, and III B) II, III, and V C) I, IV, and VI D) II, III, and VI B All of the following statements regarding deep foundation installation are true EXCEPT: A) H-Piles are Typically installed by impact driving (using diesel or hydraulic hammer) or by vibration B) At times, an "under-reamer" might be required when constructing precast concrete pile, and the bell can be oversized in the field to compensate for limited clearing ability CIVIL CIVIL C) When timber piles are driven through dense soils, a metal boot or point can be added to the pile tip to reduce the potential of the deep foundation element D) An H-pile can be started by vibration technique, and then followed by an impact driving technique to reach its final position B This statement is incorrect because precast concrete piles are not typically constructed using under-reamers or belled bottoms. Under-reaming is a technique used in drilled shafts (caissons or bored piles) where a larger bell-shaped base is created to increase load-bearing capacity. Precast concrete piles, on the other hand, are typically driven into place rather than drilled and under-reamed. Which of the following tests provide best estimate of nominal resistance of piles: A) Pile Driving Analysis (PDA) B) Gates Equation based on blow counts C) Pile Load Test D) Wave Analysis C A seal coarse is used in Cast-in-Steel Shell (CISS) pile when: A) Water level is high B) Soil is not permeable C) Both a & b D) None A The structural quality testing of CIDH piles is done by: A) Gamma-Gamma Tests B) Cross-Hole Sonic Test C) Both a & b D) None C The main advantage of Micropiles is: A) High axial capacity B) High lateral resistance C) Lower cost D) Can be installed with low overhead and easy construction D Quality Control involves all of the following except: A) Inspecting B) Testing C) Auditing D) Documenting CIVIL CIVIL C auditing (C) is primarily associated with Quality Assurance (QA) rather than QC. QA focuses on preventing defects by implementing systematic processes, policies, and audits to ensure overall quality management. When water content is increased what happens to the concrete? Increase: Workability, Slump, Permeability Decrease: Strength, Durability, Water-tightness When water content is decreased what happens to the concrete? Decrease: Workability, Slump, Permeability Increase: Strength, Durability, Water-tightness In very hit weather, thin floor slabs of newly poured concrete would most normally be: A) Sprinkled with rock slat or potassium chloride B) Sprayed with or submerged with water C) Kept insulated by dry burlap insulation D) Covered by cube or slush ice B Spraying or submerging the concrete with water ensures proper hydration, reduces rapid evaporation, and minimizes cracking. If the water-to-cement ratio of concrete is decreased, which statement about the concrete is NOT true? A) Water tightness is decreased B) Workability is decreased C) Strength is increased D) Durability is increased A A lower w/c ratio actually increases water tightness because it reduces porosity and permeability, making the concrete less susceptible to water infiltration. You are placing concrete in 100 F weather. In order to keep your aggregates cool which of the following methods are applicable: I) Add ice to the concrete mix II) Shade and cool (spray water on) your aggregate piles III) Paint your equipment white A) I B) II C) II and III D) I, II, and III D The compressive strength of concrete depends primarily on which of the following factors: CIVIL CIVIL I) Shape of aggregate particles II) Water-cement ratio III) Conditions of mixing IV) Curing and aging time A) I and II B) II only C) I, II, and IV D) All of the above B Without taking special precautions, water used in mixing concrete should be: A) Clean and free of substances deleterious to concrete or reinforcement B) Non potable C) Deionized D) Salty A Which of the following would a cast-in-place ground slab or floor not use to separate steel reinforcing bars or wire mesh from ground? I) Precast cementitious blocks II) Metal chairs III) Wood risers IV) Wire bolsters V) Plastic bar supports VI) Cellulose spacer blocks A) III and VI B) I, III, and VI C) I, II, IV, and V D) II, IV, V, and VI A because they can degrade or affect the concrete Which of the following types of joints typically use dowels? I) Construction Joints II) Control Joints III) Contraction Joints IV) Expansion Joints V) Isolation Joints A) I and V B) II and V CIVIL CIVIL C) III and IV D) I and IV D Dowels are typically used in joints where load transfer and alignment between adjacent concrete sections are required. Construction Joints Dowels are used in construction joints to maintain alignment and transfer load between two concrete pours. Expansion Joints These joints allow for thermal expansion and contraction. Dowels are used with sleeves or bond-breakers to allow movement while still transferring load. Control Joints Control joints are weakened sections to control cracking, but they do not typically use dowels. Contraction Joints These are similar to control joints and allow concrete to shrink, but they are often created by saw-cutting and usually do not require dowels. Isolation Joints These joints completely separate one concrete section from another (e.g., slab from a column), meaning dowels are not used since there should be no load transfer. In addition to location of the pour, tremie concrete poured underwater differs from common concrete poured in the air primarily in its: A) Placement method and equipment B) Components and additives C) Specific Gravity D) Aggregate Size A Tremie concrete is placed using a tremie pipe, which is a watertight pipe with a funnel on top that allows the concrete to be poured continuously underwater without washing out. When a concrete slab is placed on a hot windy day, it is not permissible to: A) Add field water as needed to obtain the desired consistency and workability B) Keep mis water cool and aggregate moist by shading and sprinkling C) Spray or protect the concrete surfaces with wet burlap to retard hardening D) Moisten the forms and the reinforcement prior to placement of concrete to minimize evaporation A Adding fly ash to a cement mixture will increase all of the following except: A) Workability B) Strength CIVIL CIVIL C) Durability D) Permeability D Permeability is reduced, not increased. The pozzolanic reaction reduces the number of capillary pores in the concrete, making it denser and less permeable to water and chemicals. Which of the following will reduce the water demand of a concrete mixture? I) Adding air entraining admixture II) Increasing the proportion of fine aggregate to coarse aggregate III) Adding fly ash IV) Using rounded aggregates instead of angular aggregates V) Increasing the temperature of the materials A) I, II, and V B) I, III, and IV C) III and IV D) I, II, III, and IV B Increasing the proportion of fine aggregate to coarse aggregate - More fine aggregate increases surface area, requiring more water, not less. Increasing the temperature of the materials - Higher temperatures increase water demand because they speed up hydration and cause faster evaporation, requiring more water to maintain workability. If an air-entraining admixture is used in concrete mix, which of the following statements is false? A) The freeze-thaw durability of the concrete will increase B) The workability of fresh concrete will be improved C) The concrete's resistance to surface scaling will be improved D) The permeability of the concrete will increase D The permeability of the concrete will decrease if air-entraining admixture is used Segregation and Bleeding are also reduced when air-entraining admixture is used Concrete cylinders are tested at a construction site. If the underlying probability of failure of each cylinder is 4%, the probability of getting a defect free sample of 12 cylinders is most nearly: A) 61% B) 69% C) 78% D) 86% CIVIL CIVIL A 100-4=96 .96^12=0.613 Snug Tight Bolts all piles of the connection are in firm contact with each other easier to install and to inspect Pre-tensioned Bolts bolts are first brough to snug tight status bolts are then tensioned to 70% of their tensile stresses bolts are tensioned using direct tension indicator, calibrated wrench or other methods Slip Critical Bolts bolts are pre-tensioned but surfaces shall be treated to develop specific friction the main difference is in design, not installation. Load must be limited not to exceed friction capacity of the connection (strength vs serviceability) necessary when no slip is needed to prevent failure due to fatigue in bridges When are pre-tensioned bolts used? 1) column splices in buildings with high ratios of height to width 2) connections of members that provide bracing to columns in tall buildings 3) various connections in buildings with cranes over 5-ton capacity 4) connections for supports of running machinery and other sources of impact or stress reversal When are slip critical bolts used? 1) joints that are subjected to fatigue load with reversal of the loading direction 2) joints that utilize oversized holes 3) joints that utilize slotted holes, expect those with applied loading approximately normal (within 80 to 100 degrees) to the direction of the long dimension of the slot 4) joints in which slip at the faying surface would be determinantal to the performance of the structure Tension Failure in bolts Occurs when the bolted plate fractures due to excessive tensile stress, typically along the net section of the plate between bolt holes. Shear-Out Failure in bolts Happens when the material around the bolt tears out due to high shear forces, usually when the edge distance is too small. Cleavage Failure in bolts Occurs when the applied load causes brittle fracture in the plate, often due to stress concentration around the bolt holes in low-ductility materials. Bearing Failure in bolts Happens when the bolt presses against the hole, causing localized deformation or crushing of the material around the bolt. CIVIL CIVIL Fastener Pull-Through Failure in bolts Occurs when the bolt or fastener pulls through the connected material, usually in thin plates or soft materials where the bearing strength is insufficient. Fastener Failure in bolts Refers to failure of the bolt itself, which can occur due to shear failure, tensile fracture, or thread stripping under excessive load Advantages of welded connections welded joints are more rigid than bolted joints can directly connect pieces without the need for connection plates welds do not create holes in member (i.e. no need to check fracture on net area) can join odd-shaped pieces together Disadvantages of welded connections welds are brittle, not ductile like bolted connections very labor intensive skilled labor required quality control is difficult to inspect potential fire hazard in area of welding The following are all types of nondestructive tests that can be used to inspect weld discontinuities in metal: A) Radiographic, ultrasonic, windsor probe B) Magnetic particle, schmidt hammer, dye penetrant C) Skidmore, dye penetrant, radiographic D) Ultrasonic, visual, magnetic particle D Radiographic, ultrasonic, magnetic particle dye penetrant, and visual Windsor probe and Schmidt hammer measure the compressive strength of concrete Skidmore tension calibrator tests high strength bolts Are fillet welds stronger when loaded transversely or longitudinally? A) Transversely by up to 25% B) Longitudinally by up to 25% C) Transversely by up to 50% D) Longitudinally by up to 50% C AISC 8.3.1 The compression of soil layer as a result of construction foundation or other loadings is caused by A) Deformation of soil particles B) Relocation of soil particles C) Expulsion of water and/air from the void spaces D) All of the above CIVIL CIVIL D Bearing capacity of a soil refers to A) the density of the soil B) the compressive strength of soil C) the modulus of elasticity of soil D) capability of the soil beneath a foundation to support a structure load D When the water table increase to the ground surface, the ultimate bearing capacity will A) increase B) decrease C) remain the same D) all of the above B The minimum factor of safety against rotational failure for permanent slopes under long term, nonseismic conditions influencing occupied structures is closet to A) 1 B) 1.1 C) 1.5 D) 3 C for slopes in homogenous clayey soils in undrained conditions (Φ=0 deg), critical failure circle is always a toe circle when slope angle is greater than ____ degrees? 53 A retaining system is proposed to protect a structure adjacent to an excavation. The retaining system should be sufficiently rigid so that only negligible deformation will occur during excavation. The most appropriate lateral earth pressure coefficient to use for design would be: A) Ka B) K0 C) Ks D) Kp B Keyword is sufficiently rigid so that only negligible deformation The passive lateral earth force from the cohesionless soil backfill at the 1/3 height of a retaining wall of height H using Rankine's theory is: A) yH B) KpyH C) .5KpyH^2 D) .5KayH^2 C CIVIL CIVIL When a retaining structure moves toward the soil backfill, the stress condition is be called A) at rest B) active C) passive D) both b and c C Which of the following cannot be determined experimentally? A) total stress B) porewater pressure C) effective stress D) all of the above C The fluctuation of the water table when it remains above ground level causes I) no changes in the total stress and porewater pressure at any point below the ground level II) no changes in the effective stress at any point below the ground level III) equal increase or decrease in total stress and porewater pressure at any point below the ground level A) I and II B) II and III C) I and III D) I, II, and III B A rectangular area has a uniform surcharge load of 5000 lb/ft^2. The stress in the soil at a certain depth from the ground surface will _______ due to the surface load. Choose the correct word(s) from the following options I) increase II) decrease III) stay the same I) increase The sum of vertical components of the forces developed at the points of contact of the solid particles per unit cross-sectional area of the soil mass called _______ stress. A) total B) effective C) water D) shear B CIVIL CIVIL Which of the following is estimated for the calculation of consolidation settlement? A) horizontal stress in soil B) increase of pore water pressure C) net increase of vertical effective stress in soil D) none of the above C he settlement which occurs more or less in a short time after foundation is subjected to the structural load is called A) elastic settlement B) primary consolidation settlement C) secondary consolidation settlement D) both B and C A The slope of the void ratio versus logarithm of effective pressure is called A) compression index B) coefficient of compressibility C) coefficient of consolidation D) coefficient of volume compressibility A Which of the following soils can have elastic and consolidation settlements occurring simultaneously? A) clayey soils B) sandy soils C) silty soils D) none of the above B For normally consolidated clays, the over consolidation ratio (OCR) is A) 0 B) 1 C) smaller than 1 D) greater than 1 B In soil with low load-bearing capacity, it is more economical to construct the entire structure over A) spread footings B) mat foundations C) a and b D) none of the above B CIVIL CIVIL For heavier structures where great depth is required for supporting the load, which of the following foundation is generally recommended? A) spread footings B) mat foundations C) piles and drilled shafts D) both b and c C The factor of safety of a slope is defined as the ratio of A) the shear stress developed along the potential failure surface to the average shear strength possessed by the soil B) the average shear strength possessed by the soil to the average shear stress developed along the potential failure surface C) the maximum shear strength developed along the potential failure surface to the average shear strength possessed by the soil D) all of the above B A slope will be stable if the factor of safety is A) less than 1 B) equal to 1 C) greater than 1.3 D) none of the above C When slope failure occurs in a manner where the sliding surface passes some distance beneath the slope's toe, it is termed as A) slope failure B) base failure C) shallow slope failure D) toe failure B If the failure plane is parallel to the top ground surface of the slope, the slope is called A) finite slope B) infinite slope C) natural slope D) man-made slope B At the end of consolidation of clayey soil, which of the following is correct? A) total stress increases = effective stress increase B) excess porewater pressure = 0 C) total stress increase = excess porewater pressure D) none of the above CIVIL CIVIL B At the end of consolidation, all the excess porewater pressure has dissipated, meaning: U excess=0 and the applied load is fully carried by the soil skeleton as an increase in effective stress. Which of the following is not true for symmetrical vertical curves: A) The elevation of the mid-chord point is the average of the elevations of the PVC and PVT B) The vertical curve lies midway between the PVI and the midpoint of the chord C) The low point on the sag vertical curve is always at the PVI station D) All of the above C Using the standard penetration test (SPT) split-barrel sampler drive 18 inches and starting the sampling from 5 ft below the ground surface, the following blow count data was obtained in increments of 6 inches: 17, 19 ,24. What is the N-value to be reported on the boring log? A) 36 B) 41 C) 43 D) 60 C 19 + 24 = 43 An undisturbed clay is required for consolidation testing. The sample is best obtained using a: A) Cone penetration test B) Pressure Meter C) Split Spoon D) Shelby Tube D Which of the following soil grouping is least likely to present embankment and settlement problems? A) Gravels, sand B) Gravels, sand, organic silts C) Plastic silts, clay D) Organic soils, clay A Which of the following soil structure is the lease compressible soil A) Loose B) Dense C) Honeycomb D) None of the above CIVIL CIVIL B The laboratory test used for determining permeability of fine-grained soils is A) falling head permeability test B) pumping test C) constant head permeability test D) none of the above A During compaction, with an increase in moisture content, the dry unit weight of soil A) always increases B) always decreases C) first increases, reaches peak values, and then decreases D) remains unchanged C The reason for a field compaction test is for the purpose of A) measuring the lift thickness B) measuring the dry unit weight on place C) gradation of materials in place D) measuring shear strength of the soil B What does DART stand for? Days Away, Restricted or Transferred What does IR stand for? number of recordable injuries or illnesses -Any lost time injuries -Injuries resulting in light duty -Medical treatment injuries Safety records must be kept for employers who have ___ or more employees at any time 11 When using handrails (2 line handrail) and toe-boards as falling object protetion the distance between the middle rail and the toe-board is most nearly: A) 3.5 in B) 15 in C) 17.5 in D) 21 in B 21-(5.5/2)-3.5=14.75 Distribute the weight evenly. Place the heaviest load over vertical members. Scaffold platforms cannot deflect greater than ____ of the span distance when loaded. 1/60 CIVIL CIVIL How high can pallets be stacked on trucks? Idle pallet stacks should not exceed 15 ft in height. A stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress shall be located in trench excavations that are 4ft or more in depth so as to require no more than _____ feet of lateral travel for employees. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) none of the above B A 21-ft deep trench shield (trench box) must be designed by a: A) Competent person B) Machinist C) Registered Professional Engineer D) Certified welder C Which of the following would not normally be considered by OSHA to be confined space? A) Manhole B) Pit C) Sewer trunk line D) Trench D For any trenching in any type of soil, how far must a support or shield system extend above the top of the vertical cut side if there is sloping toward the cut? A) 12 in B) 18 in C) 24 in D) 30 in B Unattended excavation in a remote location can be left open: A) Never B) When located 10 miles from businesses and residences C) When the excavation has been barricaded or covered D) When no one is working in the area CIVIL CIVIL C Water is observed freely seeping from the exposed sides of a cut. The soil type is most likely to be? A) Type A B) Type B C) Type C D) Type D C In order to enter an excavation site without respirators, the minimum oxygen content (by volume) must be: A) 17.5% B) 19.5% C) 20.5% D) 21.0% B The first person to enter an excavation should normally be: A) A supervisor B) A competent person C) A newly hired person D) Any trained person B Hand signals between crane operators, oilers, and ground personnel A) Must be agreed upon in advance B) Are specified by the crane industry C) Are specified by OSHA and/or ANSI D) Must be agreed to by the project administrator C In addition to protective goggles, what personal protective equipment is required when welding a pipe in a deep trench? A) Fall Protection harness B) Hard Hat C) Respirator D) Hearing Protection B CIVIL CIVIL Factors to consider when designing a protective support system for deep trenching include: A) Soil Classification B) OSHA's Analysis of site conditions C) Water content of soil D) Adjacency of swamps, lakes, and reservoirs A OSHA standards require that supported scaffolds, including outrigger supports, be restrained from tipping when height-to-base ratio is more than: A) 3:1 B) 3.5:1 C) 4:1 D) 5:1 C A soils engineer reports that the soil seems to "fall apart" just by looking at it. This soil is probably: A) Type A B) Type B C) Type C D) Type D C What is the minimum distance from the edge of the trench that spoils can be stored? A) 1 foot B) 2 feet C) 3 feet D) 5 feet B A 5-ft wide x 70 ft tall scaffolding tower is installed next to an existing structure to allow the installation of brick veneer. Find the maximum distance of the lateral anchorage location from the top to meet the requirements of OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 subpart L. A) 20 ft B) 30 ft C) 26 ft D) 32 ft CIVIL CIVIL C since the width is greater than 3 ft it must be 26 ft A trench is to be excavated in a soil that have been determined to be Type A according to OSHA Subpart P. The trench excavation will be 13 ft in depth and will be open for only 8 hours from the start of excavation to complete backfill. What is the maximum slope allowed by OSHA (H:V) for the trench walls under these conditions? A) (1/2:1) B) (3/4:1) C) (1:1) D) (1 1/2:1) B it would be A if the depth was 12 ft or less Work Breakdown Structure defines the hierarchy of project tasks, subtasks, and work packages Gantt Chart A time and activity bar chart that is used for planning, managing, and controlling major programs that have a distinct beginning and end. Project network diagram A diagram that visualizes the flow of the project activities and their relationships to other project activities. The simply supported slab shown below has the length to width ratio of 2.4 and supports a uniformly distributed load. What is the most appropriate layout for flexural reinforcement? A) Flexural reinforcement parallel to the y-axis B) Flexural reinforcement in both directions C) Flexural reinforcement parallel to the x-axis D) No flexural reinforcement C A material is said to be perfectly elastic if: A) It regains its original shape upon removal of the load B) It does not regain its original shape at all C) It regains its original shape partially upon the removal of the load D) None of the above A At any point of a beam, the section modulus may be obtained by dividing the moment of inertia of the section by: CIVIL CIVIL A) Maximum tensile stress at the section B) Depth of section C) Depth of neutral axis D) Maximum compressive stress at the section C Monolithic Foundation Monolithic means "all in one pour," so the foundation is constructed in one single pour that is made up of a concrete slab with thicker areas under load-bearing walls and all perimeter edges to take the place of footers. Usual with the slab on grade Isolated Column Foundation these foundations are placed at a certain depth in the soil and support the column load. columns of all types of building material are used, but most commonly steel and concrete columns Continuous Wall Foundation these foundations are continuously support a load-bearing wall that rests directly on top of the foundation. typically these walls are constructed using concrete or masonry, which allows us to insert steel rebar into the foundation below to transfer forces. One way slab length to width ratio is greater than or equal to 2 Two way slab length to width ratio is less than 2 Slab on Grade A concrete surface lying upon, and supported directly by, the ground beneath. Typically is reinforced with welded wire fabric, as rebar is too large for a 4" slab. How much does a bag of cement weigh? 94 lb Type I Cement Normal or general purpose cement. Type II Cement Moderate - Sulfate resistant, used for large piers and heavy retaining walls Type III Cement High Early Strength- Cures faster in 3-7 days and gains earlier strength. Used when quick set is needed, but has a high heat of hydration, so can be suitable for cold whether concreting. Type IV Cement Low Heat Cement - Generates less heat hydration, used for massive concrete structures to minimize cracking. Very slow setting. Type V Cement Sulfate Resisting Cement - used where resistance to high sulfate action is needed, like when exposed to water or soil with a high alkaline content. CIVIL CIVIL Air entraining admixture increases workability, durability, and resistance to freezing/thawing cycles. reduces separation of the components as the mix is poured into forms Water reducing admixture Concrete admixture that allows a reduction in the amount of mixing water while retaining the same workability, resulting in higher strength concrete. Retarder admixture slows down setting time to reduce heat of hydration Accelerator admixture speeds up hydration to achieve strength faster. reduces time required for protection in cold weather High range water reducers admixture water-reducer, superplasticizers Plastic shrinkage cracking Cracking in freshly mixed concrete, most commonly in slabs, that occurs when the surface of the concrete dries too rapidly. Modulus of Resilience Is a measure of the capacity of the material to absorb energy without danger of being permanently deformed. area under the curve up to the elastic limit Modulus of Toughness the total area under the stress-strain curve to the point of rupture What does the Charpy Impact Test measure? toughness Which of the following statements is not correct for Cathodic Protection of steel? A) Sacrificial metal loses electrons B) Sacrificial metal needs to be lower than iron in galvanic table C) Sacrificial metal is anode D) Coating steel with zinc is a type of cathodic protection B sacrificial metal must be higher than iron on the galvanic table to act as anode Which of the following statements is not true about the effect of increasing carbon content in the structural steel? A) Increase in yield stress B) Increase in ultimate strength C) Reduction in ductility D) Increase in the modulus of elasticity D CIVIL CIVIL Increase of carbon content of steel will result in: A) Increase in toughness B) Decrease in modulus of elasticity C) Increase in tensile strength D) Increase in energy needed to break samples of steel C Which of the following constituents is most probably used in stainless steel: A) Aluminum B) Nickel C) Silicon D) Chromium D The area under stress strain diagram of steel up to fracture is called ________. Modulus of Toughness The increase in amount of carbon in steel will _________ the steel yield strength. increase The Charpy V-notch test is used to measure ________ of steel. toughness As the percentage of carbon increases in steel its _________ decrease(s). A) Carbon resistance B) Ultimate strength C) Hardness D) Ductility A,D Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) This is a hierarchical breakdown of the project resources by category and resource type. For example, you could have a category of equipment, a category of human resources, and a category of materials. Within each category, you could identify the types of equipment your project will use, the types of human resources, and the types of materials. Organizational Breakdown Structure A hierarchical representation of the project organization, which illustrates the relationship between project activities and the organizational units that will perform those activities. The Energy Grade Line (EGL) is equivalent to the A) Hydraulic Grade Line plus pressure head CIVIL CIVIL B) Hydraulic Grade Line plus potential head C) Hydraulic Grade Line plus velocity head D) Potential head plus ve