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HESI RN MedSurg V1 Exam – Updated 2026 300 NCLEX-Style Questions with Answers & Rationales

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Prepare for the HESI RN Medical-Surgical (Med-Surg) V1 Exam with this comprehensive set of 300 NCLEX-style practice questions and detailed rationales. This updated study guide covers essential nursing concepts including heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) and beta-blocker therapy, COPD management with low-flow oxygen, diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hypokalemia, post-hip replacement pulmonary embolism, cirrhosis and paracentesis complications, colostomy and ileostomy patient teaching (odor control, pouch changes, blockages), tracheostomy care and suctioning, chest tube management (water seal, air leaks, drainage), pressure injury staging and healing, hyperkalemia management, warfarin (INR) monitoring, and cranial nerve assessments. Each answer includes a clear rationale to reinforce critical thinking and clinical judgment. Perfect for nursing students preparing for the HESI exit exam, NCLEX-RN, or medical-surgical nursing final exams.

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Institution
HESI RN MedSurg V1
Course
HESI RN MedSurg V1

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HESI RN MedSurg V1 Exam – Updated 2026
300 NCLEX-Style Questions with Answers &
Rationales

1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has an ejection fraction
of 30%. Which medication is most likely to reduce mortality?
A. Digoxin
B. Furosemide
C. Carvedilol
D. Dobutamine
Answer: C
Rationale: Beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate) reduce mortality
in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). Digoxin and
furosemide improve symptoms but do not reduce mortality.


2. A client with COPD has an SpO2 of 87% on room air. Which oxygen
delivery device should the nurse use first?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Simple face mask at 6 L/min
D. Venturi mask at 28%
Answer: B
Rationale: COPD patients require low-flow oxygen (nasal cannula 1-2 L/min)
to maintain SpO2 88-92% and avoid suppressing the hypoxic drive.


3. A client post-hip replacement surgery reports sudden shortness of breath
and chest pain. The nurse notes tachycardia and tachypnea. What is the
priority action?

,A. Administer oxygen and notify the provider
B. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
C. Ambulate the client to improve circulation
D. Administer morphine for pain
Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea and chest pain post-surgery suggest pulmonary
embolism. Priority is oxygen and immediate provider notification.
Ambulation is contraindicated.


4. A nurse is assessing a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood glucose 350 mg/dL
B. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C. Kussmaul respirations
D. Fruity breath odor
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (K <3.5) in DKA is life-threatening and can cause
cardiac arrhythmias. Insulin therapy further lowers potassium.


5. A client with cirrhosis has ascites and an abdominal paracentesis is
performed. After the procedure, the nurse should monitor for which
complication?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypotension and hypovolemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Rapid removal of large volumes of ascitic fluid can cause
hypotension and hypovolemia due to fluid shift. Monitor vital signs closely.

,6. A client with a new colostomy asks how to prevent odor. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. "Place an aspirin tablet in the pouch."
B. "Eat yogurt and buttermilk regularly."
C. "Change the pouch every 4 hours."
D. "Rinse the pouch with vinegar daily."
Answer: B
Rationale: Yogurt and buttermilk contain probiotics that reduce odor.
Aspirin can irritate the stoma. Frequent pouch changes cause skin
breakdown.


7. A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which
finding suggests a catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
A. Clear yellow urine
B. Foul-smelling, cloudy urine with fever
C. Low back pain only
D. Urine output of 30 mL/hour
Answer: B
Rationale: CAUTI signs include cloudy, foul-smelling urine, fever, and
suprapubic tenderness. Clear urine is normal.


8. A client with angina pectoris reports chest pain that is relieved by rest and
nitroglycerin. The nurse recognizes this as:
A. Unstable angina
B. Variant angina
C. Stable angina
D. Myocardial infarction

, Answer: C
Rationale: Stable angina is chest pain that occurs with exertion and is
relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Unstable angina occurs at rest.


9. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV push. Which lab
value should the nurse check before administering?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Potassium
C. Platelets
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting.
Check potassium before administration to avoid worsening hypokalemia.


10. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.2
mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. Prepare for hemodialysis
C. Place the client on a cardiac monitor
D. Encourage a low-potassium diet
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K >6.0) can cause life-threatening cardiac
arrhythmias. The priority is cardiac monitoring. Then administer potassium-
lowering medications.


11. A client with pneumonia has a fever of 103°F (39.4°C). Which intervention
should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer acetaminophen
B. Remove excess blankets

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Course
HESI RN MedSurg V1

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