HESI PHARMACOLOGY EVOLVE EXAM TEST BANK
2026 | 340 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH EXPLANATIONS | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED
ANSWERS | LATEST EXAM (JUST RELEASED)
The nurse is preparing to apply a surface anesthetic agent for a client. Which action should
the nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic absorption?
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous membranes.
B. Limit the area of application to inflamed areas.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
D. Spread the topical agent over a large surface area.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
To minimize systemic absorption of topical anesthetics, the anesthetic agent should be
applied to the smallest surface area of intact skin. Application to the mucous membranes
poses the greatest risk of systemic absorption because absorption occurs more readily
through mucous membranes than through the skin. Inflamed areas generally have an
increased blood supply, which increases the risk of systemic absorption, so option B
should be avoided. A large surface area increases the amount of topical drug that is
available for transdermal absorption, so the smallest area should be covered, not
option D.
,A client experiencing dysrhythmias is given quinidine, 300 mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse
plans to observe this client for which common side effect associated with the use of this
medication?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypothermia
C. Seizures
D. Dysphagia
A. Diarrhea
The most common side effects associated with quinidine therapy are gastrointestinal
complaints, such as diarrhea. Options B, C, and D are not usually associated with
quinidine therapy.
The health care provider prescribes the H2 antagonist famotidine, 20 mg PO in the
morning and at bedtime. Which statement regarding the action of H2 antagonists offers
the correct rationale for administering the medication at bedtime?
A. Gastric acid secreted at night is buffered, preventing pepsin formation.
B. Hydrochloric acid secreted during the night is blocked.
C. The drug relaxes stomach muscles at night to reduce acid.
D. Ingestion of the medication at night offers a sedative effect, promoting sleep.
B. Hydrochloric acid secreted during the night is blocked.
H2 antagonists act on the parietal cells to inhibit gastric secretion. Some gastric secretion
occurs all the time, even when the stomach is empty, unless medications are taken to
inhibit this action. Options C and D are not actions of famotidine. Option A is the action of
antacids. Antacids do not affect healing or prevent the recurrence of ulcers; they merely
provide symptomatic relief. Knowing the difference between H2 antagonists and
antacids is important when teaching clients.
,The nurse is preparing to administer the disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)
methotrexate to a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which intervention is most
important to implement prior to administering this medication?
A. Assess the client's liver function test results.
B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
C. Have another nurse check the prescription.
D. Assess the client's oral mucosa.
C. Have another nurse check the prescription.
Double-checking the prescription is an important intervention because death can
occur from an overdose. This medication is administered weekly and in low doses for
rheumatoid arthritis and should not be confused with administration of the drug as a
chemotherapeutic agent. Options A and B are appropriate interventions for those who
are receiving this drug, but they are not the most important interventions. Stomatitis is
an expected side effect of this medication.
A female client with myasthenia gravis is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor and asks the
nurse what can be done to remedy her fatigue and difficulty swallowing. What action
should the nurse implement?
A. Explore a plan for development of coping strategies for the symptoms with the client.
B. Explain to the client that the dosage is too high, so she should skip every other dose of
medication.
C. Advise the client to contact her health care provider because of the development of
tolerance to the medication.
D. Develop a teaching plan for the client to self-adjust the dose of medication in response
to symptoms.
D. Develop a teaching plan for the client to self-adjust the dose of medication in response
to symptoms.
Maintaining optimal dosage for cholinesterase inhibitors can be challenging for
clients with myasthenia gravis. Clients should be taught to recognize signs of
overmedication and undermedication so that they can modify the dosage themselves
based on a prescribed sliding scale. Options A, B, and C do not adequately address the
client's concerns.
, A female client is receiving tetracycline for acne. Which client teaching should the nurse include?
A. Oral contraceptives may not be effective.
B. Drinking cranberry juice will promote healing.
C. Breast tenderness may occur as a side effect.
D. The urine will turn a red-orange color.
A. Oral contraceptives may not be effective.
Certain antibiotics, such as tetracycline, decrease the effectiveness of oral
contraceptives. Options B, C, and D do not convey accurate information related to client
teaching about this medication.
A client who is experiencing an acute attack of gouty arthritis is prescribed colchicine USP,
1 mg PO daily. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
A. Take the medication with meals.
B. Limit fluid intake until the attack subsides.
C. Stop the medication when the pain resolves.
D. Report any vomiting to the clinic.
D. Report any vomiting to the clinic.
The client should be instructed to report signs of colchicine toxicity, such as nausea,
diarrhea, vomiting, and/or abdominal pain, to the health care provider. Food inhibits
the absorption of colchicine when ingested concurrently. Limited fluid intake decreases
the excretion of the uric acid crystals, which contributes to painful attacks. Typically, a
client should remain on a daily dose of colchicine to decrease the number and severity
of acute attacks, so stopping the medication after the pain resolves is not indicated.
2026 | 340 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH EXPLANATIONS | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED
ANSWERS | LATEST EXAM (JUST RELEASED)
The nurse is preparing to apply a surface anesthetic agent for a client. Which action should
the nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic absorption?
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous membranes.
B. Limit the area of application to inflamed areas.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
D. Spread the topical agent over a large surface area.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
To minimize systemic absorption of topical anesthetics, the anesthetic agent should be
applied to the smallest surface area of intact skin. Application to the mucous membranes
poses the greatest risk of systemic absorption because absorption occurs more readily
through mucous membranes than through the skin. Inflamed areas generally have an
increased blood supply, which increases the risk of systemic absorption, so option B
should be avoided. A large surface area increases the amount of topical drug that is
available for transdermal absorption, so the smallest area should be covered, not
option D.
,A client experiencing dysrhythmias is given quinidine, 300 mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse
plans to observe this client for which common side effect associated with the use of this
medication?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypothermia
C. Seizures
D. Dysphagia
A. Diarrhea
The most common side effects associated with quinidine therapy are gastrointestinal
complaints, such as diarrhea. Options B, C, and D are not usually associated with
quinidine therapy.
The health care provider prescribes the H2 antagonist famotidine, 20 mg PO in the
morning and at bedtime. Which statement regarding the action of H2 antagonists offers
the correct rationale for administering the medication at bedtime?
A. Gastric acid secreted at night is buffered, preventing pepsin formation.
B. Hydrochloric acid secreted during the night is blocked.
C. The drug relaxes stomach muscles at night to reduce acid.
D. Ingestion of the medication at night offers a sedative effect, promoting sleep.
B. Hydrochloric acid secreted during the night is blocked.
H2 antagonists act on the parietal cells to inhibit gastric secretion. Some gastric secretion
occurs all the time, even when the stomach is empty, unless medications are taken to
inhibit this action. Options C and D are not actions of famotidine. Option A is the action of
antacids. Antacids do not affect healing or prevent the recurrence of ulcers; they merely
provide symptomatic relief. Knowing the difference between H2 antagonists and
antacids is important when teaching clients.
,The nurse is preparing to administer the disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)
methotrexate to a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which intervention is most
important to implement prior to administering this medication?
A. Assess the client's liver function test results.
B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
C. Have another nurse check the prescription.
D. Assess the client's oral mucosa.
C. Have another nurse check the prescription.
Double-checking the prescription is an important intervention because death can
occur from an overdose. This medication is administered weekly and in low doses for
rheumatoid arthritis and should not be confused with administration of the drug as a
chemotherapeutic agent. Options A and B are appropriate interventions for those who
are receiving this drug, but they are not the most important interventions. Stomatitis is
an expected side effect of this medication.
A female client with myasthenia gravis is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor and asks the
nurse what can be done to remedy her fatigue and difficulty swallowing. What action
should the nurse implement?
A. Explore a plan for development of coping strategies for the symptoms with the client.
B. Explain to the client that the dosage is too high, so she should skip every other dose of
medication.
C. Advise the client to contact her health care provider because of the development of
tolerance to the medication.
D. Develop a teaching plan for the client to self-adjust the dose of medication in response
to symptoms.
D. Develop a teaching plan for the client to self-adjust the dose of medication in response
to symptoms.
Maintaining optimal dosage for cholinesterase inhibitors can be challenging for
clients with myasthenia gravis. Clients should be taught to recognize signs of
overmedication and undermedication so that they can modify the dosage themselves
based on a prescribed sliding scale. Options A, B, and C do not adequately address the
client's concerns.
, A female client is receiving tetracycline for acne. Which client teaching should the nurse include?
A. Oral contraceptives may not be effective.
B. Drinking cranberry juice will promote healing.
C. Breast tenderness may occur as a side effect.
D. The urine will turn a red-orange color.
A. Oral contraceptives may not be effective.
Certain antibiotics, such as tetracycline, decrease the effectiveness of oral
contraceptives. Options B, C, and D do not convey accurate information related to client
teaching about this medication.
A client who is experiencing an acute attack of gouty arthritis is prescribed colchicine USP,
1 mg PO daily. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
A. Take the medication with meals.
B. Limit fluid intake until the attack subsides.
C. Stop the medication when the pain resolves.
D. Report any vomiting to the clinic.
D. Report any vomiting to the clinic.
The client should be instructed to report signs of colchicine toxicity, such as nausea,
diarrhea, vomiting, and/or abdominal pain, to the health care provider. Food inhibits
the absorption of colchicine when ingested concurrently. Limited fluid intake decreases
the excretion of the uric acid crystals, which contributes to painful attacks. Typically, a
client should remain on a daily dose of colchicine to decrease the number and severity
of acute attacks, so stopping the medication after the pain resolves is not indicated.
