AMEDD BOLC Final Exam | 250 Revision MCQs for
Exam Preparation | LATEST UPDATE | TEST BANK
These 250 questions cover all key AMEDD BOLC domains: TCCC, MASCAL/triage,
MEDEVAC, preventive medicine, military law, leadership, CBRN, medical ethics, clinical
medicine, logistics, SHARP/EO, military customs, operational medicine, trauma management,
administrative procedures, and officer professional development. Best of luck on your BOLC
final exam — stay mission focused and lead with integrity!
DOMAIN 1: MILITARY MEDICINE FUNDAMENTALS & ARMY MEDICAL
DEPARTMENT
Q1. What is the primary mission of the Army Medical Department (AMEDD)?
A) Provide healthcare only to active duty Soldiers B) Manage military hospitals worldwide C)
Conserve the fighting strength of the Army (correct answer) D) Conduct medical research
for civilian populations
Rationale: The AMEDD's primary mission is to "conserve the fighting strength" —
maintaining the health, readiness, and medical fitness of the Army's force. All AMEDD
activities, from prevention to treatment, support this operational readiness mission.
Q2. Which AMEDD Corps is responsible for providing preventive medicine and public health
services?
A) Medical Corps (MC) B) Army Nurse Corps (AN) C) Medical Service Corps (MS) (correct
answer) D) Dental Corps (DC)
Rationale: The Medical Service Corps includes officers in preventive medicine,
environmental science, health physics, entomology, and public health — all core to force
health protection and disease prevention.
,Q3. What rank does a newly commissioned AMEDD officer typically receive upon completion
of BOLC?
A) Private First Class (PFC) B) Sergeant (SGT) C) Second Lieutenant (2LT) or First
Lieutenant (1LT) (correct answer) D) Captain (CPT)
Rationale: AMEDD officers typically commission as 2LT (O-1) upon graduation from their
officer commissioning source. Some direct commission officers (e.g., physicians, dentists)
may commission at higher grades depending on their years of training and experience.
Q4. The AMEDD BOLC is conducted at which installation?
A) Fort Bragg, NC B) Fort Sam Houston, TX C) Joint Base San Antonio (JBSA) — Fort Sam
Houston, TX (correct answer) D) Walter Reed National Military Medical Center
Rationale: AMEDD BOLC is conducted at the Army Medical Center of Excellence
(AMedCE) located at Fort Sam Houston/JBSA in San Antonio, Texas — the "Home of
Army Medicine."
Q5. Which regulation governs officer evaluation reports (OERs) in the Army?
A) AR 600-8-19 B) AR 670-1 C) AR 623-3 (correct answer) D) AR 350-1
Rationale: AR 623-3 governs the Evaluation Reporting System for officers, including
OERs. It establishes policies, responsibilities, and procedures for evaluating officer
performance and potential.
Q6. What does the acronym "PROFIS" stand for in Army medicine?
A) Professional Force Integration System B) Professional Filler System (correct answer) C)
Personnel Readiness Operations for Field Integration Support D) Primary Operations Force
Integration System
Rationale: PROFIS (Professional Filler System) is the program by which AMEDD officers
assigned to fixed medical facilities fill wartime billets in deploying medical units. PROFIS
soldiers train with and deploy to units other than their permanent duty station.
Q7. Which Army regulation covers the wear and appearance of uniforms?
,A) AR 350-1 B) AR 600-20 C) AR 670-1 (correct answer) D) AR 600-9
Rationale: AR 670-1 (Wear and Appearance of Army Uniforms and Insignia) governs all
aspects of how Army uniforms are worn, including insignia placement, grooming
standards, and authorized accessories.
Q8. The Uniformed Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is codified in which title of the United
States Code?
A) Title 32 B) Title 18 C) Title 10 (correct answer) D) Title 50
Rationale: Title 10, United States Code, Chapter 47 contains the UCMJ — the foundational
legal code governing military justice, court martial procedures, and punitive articles for all
branches of the armed forces.
Q9. Article 15 of the UCMJ is also referred to as:
A) Court-martial proceedings B) Summary court-martial C) Non-judicial punishment (NJP)
(correct answer) D) Administrative separation
Rationale: Article 15 UCMJ authorizes commanders to impose non-judicial punishment
for minor misconduct without a formal court-martial. It is also called "Captain's Mast"
(Navy) or "Office Hours" (Marines).
Q10. Which document serves as the Army's capstone doctrine for unified land operations?
A) FM 4-02 B) FM 6-22 C) ADP 3-0 (correct answer) D) ATP 4-02.1
Rationale: ADP 3-0 (Operations) is the Army's capstone operations doctrine, describing
how the Army conducts unified land operations across the range of military operations.
FM 4-02 covers force health protection, and FM 6-22 covers leadership.
DOMAIN 2: TACTICAL COMBAT CASUALTY CARE (TCCC)
Q11. The three phases of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) are:
, A) Triage, Treatment, Transport B) Care Under Fire, Tactical Field Care, Tactical
Evacuation Care (correct answer) C) Immediate, Delayed, Minimal D) Stabilize, Secure,
Evacuate
Rationale: TCCC has three phases: (1) Care Under Fire — care rendered while taking fire;
(2) Tactical Field Care — care rendered when no longer under direct fire; (3) Tactical
Evacuation Care (TACEVAC) — care rendered during evacuation to a higher echelon.
Q12. In the Care Under Fire phase, what is the FIRST priority?
A) Establish IV access B) Apply a tourniquet to all extremity wounds C) Return fire and take
cover (correct answer) D) Assess the casualty's airway
Rationale: In Care Under Fire, the first priority is to suppress the enemy threat — return
fire and seek cover. The primary medical intervention is controlling life-threatening
extremity hemorrhage with a tourniquet before moving the casualty to cover.
Q13. The recommended tourniquet for use in TCCC is:
A) Improvised field tourniquet B) Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT) (correct answer)
C) Pneumatic tourniquet D) Triangular bandage tourniquet
Rationale: The Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT) and the Special Operations Forces
Tactical Tourniquet (SOFTT-W) are the approved tourniquets for TCCC. The CAT is the
most widely issued tourniquet in the U.S. military.
Q14. Where should a tourniquet be applied for a life-threatening leg wound?
A) Directly over the wound B) Below the knee C) 2–3 inches (5–7 cm) proximal (above) the
wound (correct answer) D) At the groin crease only
Rationale: Tourniquets should be applied 2–3 inches proximal to the wound on the
extremity (high and tight). Placement directly over a wound or joint is contraindicated. If
the wound is in the proximal third of the extremity, tourniquet is placed as high as possible.
Q15. The MARCH algorithm in TCCC stands for:
Exam Preparation | LATEST UPDATE | TEST BANK
These 250 questions cover all key AMEDD BOLC domains: TCCC, MASCAL/triage,
MEDEVAC, preventive medicine, military law, leadership, CBRN, medical ethics, clinical
medicine, logistics, SHARP/EO, military customs, operational medicine, trauma management,
administrative procedures, and officer professional development. Best of luck on your BOLC
final exam — stay mission focused and lead with integrity!
DOMAIN 1: MILITARY MEDICINE FUNDAMENTALS & ARMY MEDICAL
DEPARTMENT
Q1. What is the primary mission of the Army Medical Department (AMEDD)?
A) Provide healthcare only to active duty Soldiers B) Manage military hospitals worldwide C)
Conserve the fighting strength of the Army (correct answer) D) Conduct medical research
for civilian populations
Rationale: The AMEDD's primary mission is to "conserve the fighting strength" —
maintaining the health, readiness, and medical fitness of the Army's force. All AMEDD
activities, from prevention to treatment, support this operational readiness mission.
Q2. Which AMEDD Corps is responsible for providing preventive medicine and public health
services?
A) Medical Corps (MC) B) Army Nurse Corps (AN) C) Medical Service Corps (MS) (correct
answer) D) Dental Corps (DC)
Rationale: The Medical Service Corps includes officers in preventive medicine,
environmental science, health physics, entomology, and public health — all core to force
health protection and disease prevention.
,Q3. What rank does a newly commissioned AMEDD officer typically receive upon completion
of BOLC?
A) Private First Class (PFC) B) Sergeant (SGT) C) Second Lieutenant (2LT) or First
Lieutenant (1LT) (correct answer) D) Captain (CPT)
Rationale: AMEDD officers typically commission as 2LT (O-1) upon graduation from their
officer commissioning source. Some direct commission officers (e.g., physicians, dentists)
may commission at higher grades depending on their years of training and experience.
Q4. The AMEDD BOLC is conducted at which installation?
A) Fort Bragg, NC B) Fort Sam Houston, TX C) Joint Base San Antonio (JBSA) — Fort Sam
Houston, TX (correct answer) D) Walter Reed National Military Medical Center
Rationale: AMEDD BOLC is conducted at the Army Medical Center of Excellence
(AMedCE) located at Fort Sam Houston/JBSA in San Antonio, Texas — the "Home of
Army Medicine."
Q5. Which regulation governs officer evaluation reports (OERs) in the Army?
A) AR 600-8-19 B) AR 670-1 C) AR 623-3 (correct answer) D) AR 350-1
Rationale: AR 623-3 governs the Evaluation Reporting System for officers, including
OERs. It establishes policies, responsibilities, and procedures for evaluating officer
performance and potential.
Q6. What does the acronym "PROFIS" stand for in Army medicine?
A) Professional Force Integration System B) Professional Filler System (correct answer) C)
Personnel Readiness Operations for Field Integration Support D) Primary Operations Force
Integration System
Rationale: PROFIS (Professional Filler System) is the program by which AMEDD officers
assigned to fixed medical facilities fill wartime billets in deploying medical units. PROFIS
soldiers train with and deploy to units other than their permanent duty station.
Q7. Which Army regulation covers the wear and appearance of uniforms?
,A) AR 350-1 B) AR 600-20 C) AR 670-1 (correct answer) D) AR 600-9
Rationale: AR 670-1 (Wear and Appearance of Army Uniforms and Insignia) governs all
aspects of how Army uniforms are worn, including insignia placement, grooming
standards, and authorized accessories.
Q8. The Uniformed Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is codified in which title of the United
States Code?
A) Title 32 B) Title 18 C) Title 10 (correct answer) D) Title 50
Rationale: Title 10, United States Code, Chapter 47 contains the UCMJ — the foundational
legal code governing military justice, court martial procedures, and punitive articles for all
branches of the armed forces.
Q9. Article 15 of the UCMJ is also referred to as:
A) Court-martial proceedings B) Summary court-martial C) Non-judicial punishment (NJP)
(correct answer) D) Administrative separation
Rationale: Article 15 UCMJ authorizes commanders to impose non-judicial punishment
for minor misconduct without a formal court-martial. It is also called "Captain's Mast"
(Navy) or "Office Hours" (Marines).
Q10. Which document serves as the Army's capstone doctrine for unified land operations?
A) FM 4-02 B) FM 6-22 C) ADP 3-0 (correct answer) D) ATP 4-02.1
Rationale: ADP 3-0 (Operations) is the Army's capstone operations doctrine, describing
how the Army conducts unified land operations across the range of military operations.
FM 4-02 covers force health protection, and FM 6-22 covers leadership.
DOMAIN 2: TACTICAL COMBAT CASUALTY CARE (TCCC)
Q11. The three phases of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) are:
, A) Triage, Treatment, Transport B) Care Under Fire, Tactical Field Care, Tactical
Evacuation Care (correct answer) C) Immediate, Delayed, Minimal D) Stabilize, Secure,
Evacuate
Rationale: TCCC has three phases: (1) Care Under Fire — care rendered while taking fire;
(2) Tactical Field Care — care rendered when no longer under direct fire; (3) Tactical
Evacuation Care (TACEVAC) — care rendered during evacuation to a higher echelon.
Q12. In the Care Under Fire phase, what is the FIRST priority?
A) Establish IV access B) Apply a tourniquet to all extremity wounds C) Return fire and take
cover (correct answer) D) Assess the casualty's airway
Rationale: In Care Under Fire, the first priority is to suppress the enemy threat — return
fire and seek cover. The primary medical intervention is controlling life-threatening
extremity hemorrhage with a tourniquet before moving the casualty to cover.
Q13. The recommended tourniquet for use in TCCC is:
A) Improvised field tourniquet B) Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT) (correct answer)
C) Pneumatic tourniquet D) Triangular bandage tourniquet
Rationale: The Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT) and the Special Operations Forces
Tactical Tourniquet (SOFTT-W) are the approved tourniquets for TCCC. The CAT is the
most widely issued tourniquet in the U.S. military.
Q14. Where should a tourniquet be applied for a life-threatening leg wound?
A) Directly over the wound B) Below the knee C) 2–3 inches (5–7 cm) proximal (above) the
wound (correct answer) D) At the groin crease only
Rationale: Tourniquets should be applied 2–3 inches proximal to the wound on the
extremity (high and tight). Placement directly over a wound or joint is contraindicated. If
the wound is in the proximal third of the extremity, tourniquet is placed as high as possible.
Q15. The MARCH algorithm in TCCC stands for:
