Updated ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Exit Exam with
NGN 180 Questions and 100% Verified Answers to Pass Actual
2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam Guaranteed
Pass — 188 Questions and Answers Already Graded A+
Premium Exam Tested And Verified
Page 1
,Question 1 of 188
A client with a history of chronic heart failure presents with acute dyspnea, oxygen saturation of
88% on room air, and a heart rate of 110 bpm. The nurse auscultates crackles in bilateral lung bases
and notes jugular venous distention. Which intervention should the nurse initiate FIRST?
A. Administer intravenous furosemide 40 mg over 2 minutes
B. Place the client in high Fowler's position and apply supplemental oxygen
C. Obtain a stat electrocardiogram
D. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings
The correct answer is:
Correct Action: Place the client in high Fowler's position and apply supplemental oxygen
Rationales
• Place the client in high Fowler's position and apply supplemental oxygen (Correct):
This is the correct action. In acute decompensated heart failure with hypoxia, the priority is to optimize oxygenation and
ventilation. High Fowler's position reduces preload and improves lung expansion, while oxygen addresses hypoxemia.
Diuretics are important but not immediate without first stabilizing oxygenation.
• Administer intravenous furosemide 40 mg over 2 minutes (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. High Fowler's position reduces preload and improves lung expansion, while oxygen
addresses hypoxemia. Diuretics are important but not immediate without first stabilizing oxygenation
• Obtain a stat electrocardiogram (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. High Fowler's position reduces preload and improves lung expansion, while oxygen
addresses hypoxemia. Diuretics are important but not immediate without first stabilizing oxygenation
• Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. High Fowler's position reduces preload and improves lung expansion, while oxygen
addresses hypoxemia. Diuretics are important but not immediate without first stabilizing oxygenation
Page 2
,Question 2 of 188
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving unfractionated heparin for a deep
vein thrombosis. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 98 seconds (therapeutic range:
60-80 seconds). Which action should the nurse take?
A. Continue the heparin infusion at the current rate
B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate per protocol
C. Administer protamine sulfate 1 mg per 100 units of heparin
D. Hold the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider
The correct answer is:
Correct Action: Decrease the heparin infusion rate per protocol
Rationales
• Decrease the heparin infusion rate per protocol (Correct):
This is the correct action. An aPTT of 98 seconds is above the therapeutic range, indicating an increased risk of bleeding.
The nurse should decrease the infusion rate per protocol to bring the aPTT back into range. Protamine sulfate is reserved
for severe bleeding or reversal. Holding the infusion may lead to loss of therapeutic effect.
• Continue the heparin infusion at the current rate (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. The nurse should decrease the infusion rate per protocol to bring the aPTT back into range.
Protamine sulfate is reserved for severe bleeding or reversal
• Administer protamine sulfate 1 mg per 100 units of heparin (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. The nurse should decrease the infusion rate per protocol to bring the aPTT back into range.
Protamine sulfate is reserved for severe bleeding or reversal
• Hold the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. The nurse should decrease the infusion rate per protocol to bring the aPTT back into range.
Protamine sulfate is reserved for severe bleeding or reversal
Page 3
, Question 3 of 188
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin 1000 mg orally twice daily and insulin
glargine 20 units subcutaneously at bedtime. The client asks, 'Why do I need both medications?'
Which response by the nurse is MOST appropriate?
A. Metformin decreases glucose production in your liver, and insulin helps your cells use glucose more
effectively.
B. The combination provides better blood sugar control than either alone, but you may need to adjust your diet.
C. Metformin works by increasing insulin secretion from your pancreas, and insulin replaces what your body
cannot produce.
D. Insulin glargine provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day, while metformin prevents high blood
sugar after meals.
The correct answer is:
Correct Action: Metformin decreases glucose production in your liver, and insulin helps your cells use
glucose more effectively.
Rationales
• Metformin decreases glucose production in your liver, and insulin helps your cells use glucose more effectively.
(Correct):
This is the correct action. Metformin primarily reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and improves insulin sensitivity, while
insulin glargine provides basal insulin to supplement endogenous production. Option A accurately describes these
complementary mechanisms. Option C is incorrect because metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion; that is the
• The combination provides better blood sugar control than either alone, but you may need to adjust your diet.
(Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. Option A accurately describes these complementary mechanisms. Option C is incorrect
because metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion; that is the action of sulfonylureas
• Metformin works by increasing insulin secretion from your pancreas, and insulin replaces what your body
cannot produce. (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. Option A accurately describes these complementary mechanisms. Option C is incorrect
because metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion; that is the action of sulfonylureas
• Insulin glargine provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day, while metformin prevents high blood
sugar after meals. (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. Option A accurately describes these complementary mechanisms. Option C is incorrect
because metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion; that is the action of sulfonylureas
Page 4
NGN 180 Questions and 100% Verified Answers to Pass Actual
2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam Guaranteed
Pass — 188 Questions and Answers Already Graded A+
Premium Exam Tested And Verified
Page 1
,Question 1 of 188
A client with a history of chronic heart failure presents with acute dyspnea, oxygen saturation of
88% on room air, and a heart rate of 110 bpm. The nurse auscultates crackles in bilateral lung bases
and notes jugular venous distention. Which intervention should the nurse initiate FIRST?
A. Administer intravenous furosemide 40 mg over 2 minutes
B. Place the client in high Fowler's position and apply supplemental oxygen
C. Obtain a stat electrocardiogram
D. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings
The correct answer is:
Correct Action: Place the client in high Fowler's position and apply supplemental oxygen
Rationales
• Place the client in high Fowler's position and apply supplemental oxygen (Correct):
This is the correct action. In acute decompensated heart failure with hypoxia, the priority is to optimize oxygenation and
ventilation. High Fowler's position reduces preload and improves lung expansion, while oxygen addresses hypoxemia.
Diuretics are important but not immediate without first stabilizing oxygenation.
• Administer intravenous furosemide 40 mg over 2 minutes (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. High Fowler's position reduces preload and improves lung expansion, while oxygen
addresses hypoxemia. Diuretics are important but not immediate without first stabilizing oxygenation
• Obtain a stat electrocardiogram (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. High Fowler's position reduces preload and improves lung expansion, while oxygen
addresses hypoxemia. Diuretics are important but not immediate without first stabilizing oxygenation
• Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. High Fowler's position reduces preload and improves lung expansion, while oxygen
addresses hypoxemia. Diuretics are important but not immediate without first stabilizing oxygenation
Page 2
,Question 2 of 188
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving unfractionated heparin for a deep
vein thrombosis. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 98 seconds (therapeutic range:
60-80 seconds). Which action should the nurse take?
A. Continue the heparin infusion at the current rate
B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate per protocol
C. Administer protamine sulfate 1 mg per 100 units of heparin
D. Hold the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider
The correct answer is:
Correct Action: Decrease the heparin infusion rate per protocol
Rationales
• Decrease the heparin infusion rate per protocol (Correct):
This is the correct action. An aPTT of 98 seconds is above the therapeutic range, indicating an increased risk of bleeding.
The nurse should decrease the infusion rate per protocol to bring the aPTT back into range. Protamine sulfate is reserved
for severe bleeding or reversal. Holding the infusion may lead to loss of therapeutic effect.
• Continue the heparin infusion at the current rate (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. The nurse should decrease the infusion rate per protocol to bring the aPTT back into range.
Protamine sulfate is reserved for severe bleeding or reversal
• Administer protamine sulfate 1 mg per 100 units of heparin (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. The nurse should decrease the infusion rate per protocol to bring the aPTT back into range.
Protamine sulfate is reserved for severe bleeding or reversal
• Hold the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. The nurse should decrease the infusion rate per protocol to bring the aPTT back into range.
Protamine sulfate is reserved for severe bleeding or reversal
Page 3
, Question 3 of 188
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin 1000 mg orally twice daily and insulin
glargine 20 units subcutaneously at bedtime. The client asks, 'Why do I need both medications?'
Which response by the nurse is MOST appropriate?
A. Metformin decreases glucose production in your liver, and insulin helps your cells use glucose more
effectively.
B. The combination provides better blood sugar control than either alone, but you may need to adjust your diet.
C. Metformin works by increasing insulin secretion from your pancreas, and insulin replaces what your body
cannot produce.
D. Insulin glargine provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day, while metformin prevents high blood
sugar after meals.
The correct answer is:
Correct Action: Metformin decreases glucose production in your liver, and insulin helps your cells use
glucose more effectively.
Rationales
• Metformin decreases glucose production in your liver, and insulin helps your cells use glucose more effectively.
(Correct):
This is the correct action. Metformin primarily reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and improves insulin sensitivity, while
insulin glargine provides basal insulin to supplement endogenous production. Option A accurately describes these
complementary mechanisms. Option C is incorrect because metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion; that is the
• The combination provides better blood sugar control than either alone, but you may need to adjust your diet.
(Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. Option A accurately describes these complementary mechanisms. Option C is incorrect
because metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion; that is the action of sulfonylureas
• Metformin works by increasing insulin secretion from your pancreas, and insulin replaces what your body
cannot produce. (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. Option A accurately describes these complementary mechanisms. Option C is incorrect
because metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion; that is the action of sulfonylureas
• Insulin glargine provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day, while metformin prevents high blood
sugar after meals. (Incorrect):
This option is not appropriate. Option A accurately describes these complementary mechanisms. Option C is incorrect
because metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion; that is the action of sulfonylureas
Page 4
