PN HESI EXIT REAL EXAM TEST
BANK WITH 150 EXAM VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS) HESI PN
Question 1 (Delegation – LPN Scope)
An RN is delegating tasks to an LPN on a medical-surgical unit. Which task is
appropriate for the RN to delegate to the LPN?
A. Performing the initial admission assessment on a new patient
B. Administering oral medications to a stable patient with diabetes
C. Developing the nursing care plan for a patient with pneumonia
D. Discharging a patient with new heart failure teaching
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs can administer oral medications to stable patients.
RNs cannot delegate initial assessment, care plan development, or
discharge teaching—these require RN-level evaluation.
Question 2 (Delegation – UAP Scope)
A nurse is delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which
task is appropriate to delegate?
A. Assessing a patient‘s lung sounds
,B. Feeding a stable patient with dysphagia who has a prescribed feeding
plan
C. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication
D. Teaching a patient about insulin administration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: UAP can feed stable patients with established feeding
plans. Assessment, evaluation, and teaching require licensed nursing
judgment.
Question 3 (Legal/Ethical – Advance Directives)
A client with terminal cancer is admitted and states, "I don’t want to be put
on a breathing machine." What action should the nurse take first?
A. Document the client’s statement in the chart
B. Notify the healthcare provider
C. Ask the client if they have an advance directive
D. Place a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) order on the chart
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should first determine if the client has an
advance directive that clarifies their wishes. DNR orders must be
written by the provider.
Question 4 (Prioritization – ABCs)
*A nurse on a telemetry unit is assessing a client who is receiving
,continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min and the PR
interval is 0.24 seconds. Which cardiac rhythm should the nurse identify?*
A. First-degree AV block
B. Premature ventricular contraction
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PR interval >0.20 seconds with consistent heart rhythm is
characteristic of first-degree AV block.
Question 5 (Nursing Process – Assessment)
A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which
information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?
A. It is a condition in which tumors form in the pancreas or duodenum
B. It is critical to report promptly to your health care provider any findings
of peptic ulcers
C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and possible surgery
D. Peptic ulcers may occur at unusual areas of the stomach or intestine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcer findings is most critical
because Zollinger-Ellison syndrome causes severe, recurrent ulcers
that can lead to complications such as perforation or bleeding.
, ✅ Questions 6-10: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
Question 6
*The LPN/LVN is planning care for a client who has a fourth-degree midline
laceration that occurred during vaginal delivery of an 8 lb 10 oz infant.
What intervention has the highest priority?*
A. Administer prescribed stool softener
B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
D. Encourage use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stool softener prevents constipation and strain on the
perineal laceration during bowel movements, reducing the risk of
wound dehiscence and pain.
Question 7
A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client with angina. Which
finding should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
A. Hyperlipidemia
B. COPD
C. Seizure disorder
D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperlipidemia contributes to atherosclerosis, a primary
cause of angina. COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not
direct risk factors for angina.
BANK WITH 150 EXAM VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS) HESI PN
Question 1 (Delegation – LPN Scope)
An RN is delegating tasks to an LPN on a medical-surgical unit. Which task is
appropriate for the RN to delegate to the LPN?
A. Performing the initial admission assessment on a new patient
B. Administering oral medications to a stable patient with diabetes
C. Developing the nursing care plan for a patient with pneumonia
D. Discharging a patient with new heart failure teaching
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs can administer oral medications to stable patients.
RNs cannot delegate initial assessment, care plan development, or
discharge teaching—these require RN-level evaluation.
Question 2 (Delegation – UAP Scope)
A nurse is delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which
task is appropriate to delegate?
A. Assessing a patient‘s lung sounds
,B. Feeding a stable patient with dysphagia who has a prescribed feeding
plan
C. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication
D. Teaching a patient about insulin administration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: UAP can feed stable patients with established feeding
plans. Assessment, evaluation, and teaching require licensed nursing
judgment.
Question 3 (Legal/Ethical – Advance Directives)
A client with terminal cancer is admitted and states, "I don’t want to be put
on a breathing machine." What action should the nurse take first?
A. Document the client’s statement in the chart
B. Notify the healthcare provider
C. Ask the client if they have an advance directive
D. Place a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) order on the chart
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should first determine if the client has an
advance directive that clarifies their wishes. DNR orders must be
written by the provider.
Question 4 (Prioritization – ABCs)
*A nurse on a telemetry unit is assessing a client who is receiving
,continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min and the PR
interval is 0.24 seconds. Which cardiac rhythm should the nurse identify?*
A. First-degree AV block
B. Premature ventricular contraction
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PR interval >0.20 seconds with consistent heart rhythm is
characteristic of first-degree AV block.
Question 5 (Nursing Process – Assessment)
A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which
information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?
A. It is a condition in which tumors form in the pancreas or duodenum
B. It is critical to report promptly to your health care provider any findings
of peptic ulcers
C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and possible surgery
D. Peptic ulcers may occur at unusual areas of the stomach or intestine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcer findings is most critical
because Zollinger-Ellison syndrome causes severe, recurrent ulcers
that can lead to complications such as perforation or bleeding.
, ✅ Questions 6-10: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
Question 6
*The LPN/LVN is planning care for a client who has a fourth-degree midline
laceration that occurred during vaginal delivery of an 8 lb 10 oz infant.
What intervention has the highest priority?*
A. Administer prescribed stool softener
B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
D. Encourage use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stool softener prevents constipation and strain on the
perineal laceration during bowel movements, reducing the risk of
wound dehiscence and pain.
Question 7
A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client with angina. Which
finding should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
A. Hyperlipidemia
B. COPD
C. Seizure disorder
D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperlipidemia contributes to atherosclerosis, a primary
cause of angina. COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not
direct risk factors for angina.
