N588 Quiz 3 Women’s Health & GYN | Full Questions and Answers | 2026 Update |
100% Correct - Post University.
3. To meet the diagnostic criteria for Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS), symptoms must occur
during which phase of the menstrual cycle? A) Follicular phase B) Luteal phase C) Ovulatory phase
D) Proliferative phase
4. A patient is being evaluated for Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD). Which symptom is
a core requirement that distinguishes PMDD from PMS? A) Breast tenderness B) Bloating and
weight gain C) Marked affective lability or irritability D) Increased appetite
5. Which of the following is considered first-line pharmacological management for severe PMDD
symptoms? A) Combined oral contraceptives B) Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) C)
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists D) Progesterone-only injections
, 6. In a complete hydatidiform mole, the genetic material is typically: A) Entirely paternal in origin
(46,XX or 46,XY) B) Triploid (69,XXY) C) Entirely maternal in origin D) Haploid (23,X)
7. Which immunohistochemical staining pattern is characteristic of a complete hydatidiform
mole? A) Positive p57 staining in the villous stroma B) Negative p57 staining (absent maternal
expression) C) Positive p57 staining in the trophoblast only D) Diffuse p57 staining throughout the
placenta
8. A partial hydatidiform mole is most commonly associated with which karyotype? A) 46,XX B)
45,X C) 69,XXY D) 47,XX+21
9. A patient 3 days postpartum presents with a fever of 102.2°F, uterine tenderness, and foul-
smelling lochia. These findings are most consistent with: A) Endometritis B) Mastitis C) Postpartum
blues D) Cystitis
10. What is the primary risk factor for the development of postpartum endometritis? A)
Breastfeeding B) Cesarean birth C) Precipitous labor D) Use of epidural anesthesia
11. A nursing student is comparing mastitis and engorgement. Which statement is correct? A)
Engorgement is usually unilateral; mastitis is bilateral. B) Mastitis typically presents with systemic flu-
like symptoms; engorgement does not. C) Mastitis occurs in the first 24 hours; engorgement occurs at 2
weeks. D) Antibiotics are the primary treatment for engorgement.
12. At 20 weeks gestation, where should the nurse expect to palpate the fundus? A) At the
symphysis pubis B) Midway between the symphysis and the umbilicus C) At the level of the umbilicus
D) At the xiphoid process
13. Maternal Serum Alpha-Fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is most accurately performed during
which window of gestation? A) 10–12 weeks B) 15–20 weeks C) 24–28 weeks D) 35–37 weeks
14. Screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is routinely performed for all pregnant women at:
A) The initial prenatal visit B) 20 weeks gestation C) 28 weeks gestation D) 35–37 weeks gestation
15. A patient with an IUD in place becomes pregnant. The nurse should inform the patient that
she is at an increased risk for: A) Gestational diabetes B) Ectopic pregnancy C) Hydatidiform mole D)
Placenta previa
16. Which of the following ultrasound findings is a "classic" sign of a hydatidiform mole? A)
Empty gestational sac B) Thickened nuchal translucency C) "Snowstorm" or "grapes" appearance D)
Reversed end-diastolic flow
100% Correct - Post University.
3. To meet the diagnostic criteria for Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS), symptoms must occur
during which phase of the menstrual cycle? A) Follicular phase B) Luteal phase C) Ovulatory phase
D) Proliferative phase
4. A patient is being evaluated for Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD). Which symptom is
a core requirement that distinguishes PMDD from PMS? A) Breast tenderness B) Bloating and
weight gain C) Marked affective lability or irritability D) Increased appetite
5. Which of the following is considered first-line pharmacological management for severe PMDD
symptoms? A) Combined oral contraceptives B) Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) C)
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists D) Progesterone-only injections
, 6. In a complete hydatidiform mole, the genetic material is typically: A) Entirely paternal in origin
(46,XX or 46,XY) B) Triploid (69,XXY) C) Entirely maternal in origin D) Haploid (23,X)
7. Which immunohistochemical staining pattern is characteristic of a complete hydatidiform
mole? A) Positive p57 staining in the villous stroma B) Negative p57 staining (absent maternal
expression) C) Positive p57 staining in the trophoblast only D) Diffuse p57 staining throughout the
placenta
8. A partial hydatidiform mole is most commonly associated with which karyotype? A) 46,XX B)
45,X C) 69,XXY D) 47,XX+21
9. A patient 3 days postpartum presents with a fever of 102.2°F, uterine tenderness, and foul-
smelling lochia. These findings are most consistent with: A) Endometritis B) Mastitis C) Postpartum
blues D) Cystitis
10. What is the primary risk factor for the development of postpartum endometritis? A)
Breastfeeding B) Cesarean birth C) Precipitous labor D) Use of epidural anesthesia
11. A nursing student is comparing mastitis and engorgement. Which statement is correct? A)
Engorgement is usually unilateral; mastitis is bilateral. B) Mastitis typically presents with systemic flu-
like symptoms; engorgement does not. C) Mastitis occurs in the first 24 hours; engorgement occurs at 2
weeks. D) Antibiotics are the primary treatment for engorgement.
12. At 20 weeks gestation, where should the nurse expect to palpate the fundus? A) At the
symphysis pubis B) Midway between the symphysis and the umbilicus C) At the level of the umbilicus
D) At the xiphoid process
13. Maternal Serum Alpha-Fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is most accurately performed during
which window of gestation? A) 10–12 weeks B) 15–20 weeks C) 24–28 weeks D) 35–37 weeks
14. Screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is routinely performed for all pregnant women at:
A) The initial prenatal visit B) 20 weeks gestation C) 28 weeks gestation D) 35–37 weeks gestation
15. A patient with an IUD in place becomes pregnant. The nurse should inform the patient that
she is at an increased risk for: A) Gestational diabetes B) Ectopic pregnancy C) Hydatidiform mole D)
Placenta previa
16. Which of the following ultrasound findings is a "classic" sign of a hydatidiform mole? A)
Empty gestational sac B) Thickened nuchal translucency C) "Snowstorm" or "grapes" appearance D)
Reversed end-diastolic flow