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NURS 5432 FNP I Midterm Exam – 300 Questions University of Texas at Arlington | 2026 | Modules 1–6 | FNP Foundation

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Pass your NURS 5432 FNP I Final Exam and prepare for AANP/ANCC board certification with this comprehensive study guide featuring 300 high-yield practice questions and detailed rationales! This essential resource covers all core topics for the Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) final exam including hypertension management (ACE inhibitors preferred in diabetes for renal protection), diabetes mellitus (SGLT2 inhibitors for CKD progression, GLP-1 agonists for weight loss and cardiovascular benefit, insulin when A1c 9% on multiple agents), LDL cholesterol goals (very high-risk patients with DM + ASCVD: LDL 55 mg/dL), heart failure (HFrEF: GDMT including beta-blockers, ACEi/ARB, MRA, SGLT2i; CRT-D for LBBB ≥150 ms; IV iron for iron deficiency; spironolactone for HFpEF), COPD (GOLD Group E initial therapy LAMA+LABA, ICS if eosinophils ≥300, chronic hypercapnia benefits from home NIV), osteoporosis (bisphosphonates first-line, drug holiday after 3-5 years if low fracture risk, denosumab withdrawal requires transition to bisphosphonate), CKD (SGLT2 inhibitors slow progression, hold spironolactone if K5.5, phosphate binders for hyperphosphatemia, anemia management with ESA if Hb10), gout (allopurinol starting dose 50-100 mg daily in CKD, acute treatment with NSAID/colchicine/steroids), BPH (alpha-blockers for rapid symptom relief), cirrhosis (lactulose first-line for hepatic encephalopathy, diagnostic paracentesis before antibiotics for SBP, non-selective beta-blockers or band ligation for variceal primary prophylaxis), Parkinson's disease (levodopa/carbidopa most effective, amantadine for dyskinesias, avoid dopamine agonists in elderly), acute and urgent care (aortic dissection: tearing chest pain with BP differential, appendicitis: periumbilical then RLQ pain, cauda equina: urinary retention + saddle anesthesia = emergent MRI, central retinal artery occlusion: painless monocular vision loss + cherry red spot, anaphylaxis: epinephrine IM first, hypertensive emergency: IV labetalol or nicardipine for end-organ damage, Bell's palsy vs stroke: forehead sparing differentiates central vs peripheral), women's health (endometriosis, PCOS Rotterdam criteria, letrozole first-line for ovulation induction, LNG-IUD for heavy menstrual bleeding, postmenopausal bleeding = endometrial biopsy, vulvovaginal candidiasis treatment with fluconazole 150 mg x1, BV with metronidazole, trichomoniasis treat both partners, preeclampsia: BP ≥140/90 + proteinuria after 20 weeks, placenta previa: painless bleeding - avoid digital exam), men's health (BPH: AUA symptom score first, tamsulosin first-line, PSA elevation with abnormal DRE = biopsy, active surveillance for low-risk prostate cancer, testicular torsion: absent cremasteric reflex + absent flow on ultrasound = emergency, varicocele "bag of worms", erectile dysfunction: PDE5 inhibitors first-line, contraindicated with nitrates, priapism 4 hours = emergency aspiration), geriatrics & end-of-life care (delirium vs dementia: acute onset, fluctuating, inattention, most common cause of falls is gait and balance disorders, STOPP/START criteria for appropriate prescribing in elderly, Beers criteria drugs to avoid (amitriptyline increases fall risk), MMSE scoring (20-24 mild dementia), non-pharmacologic interventions first for behavioral symptoms of dementia, tube feeding NOT recommended in advanced dementia, CBT-I first-line for insomnia in elderly, POLST forms are actionable medical orders for current serious illness, surrogate decision-maker hierarchy (spouse first), low-dose morphine first-line for dyspnea in terminal illness, haloperidol for terminal delirium, hand feeding preferred over tube feeding in advanced dementia). Perfect for Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) students preparing for final exams, clinical rotations, and AANP or ANCC board certification.

Meer zien Lees minder
Instelling
NURS 5220
Vak
NURS 5220

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NURS 5432 FNP I Final Exam – 300 Questions
University of Texas at Arlington | 2026 | Modules
7–10 | FNP Foundation



Module 7: Chronic Disease Management (Questions 1–80)
1. A 55-year-old with hypertension and DM has BP 148/90. First-line medication?
A. HCTZ
B. Lisinopril
C. Amlodipine
D. Metoprolol
Rationale: ACEi/ARB preferred in diabetes for renal protection.

2. A patient with DM and CKD (eGFR 45) has A1c 8.0%. Which medication is preferred?
A. Metformin alone
B. Empagliflozin
C. Glipizide
D. Pioglitazone
Rationale: SGLT2i reduces CKD progression and CV events.

3. LDL goal for a patient with diabetes and ASCVD?
A. <100 mg/dL
B. <70 mg/dL
C. <55 mg/dL
D. <130 mg/dL
*Rationale: Very high-risk patients (DM + ASCVD) LDL <55 mg/dL.*

4. A 65-year-old with HFrEF (EF 35%) on metoprolol, lisinopril, furosemide. Add for
mortality benefit?
A. Digoxin
B. Spironolactone
C. Hydralazine

,D. Amiodarone
Rationale: MRA reduces mortality in HFrEF.

5. A patient with COPD, FEV1 50%, frequent exacerbations. GOLD group E. Initial
therapy?
A. LABA alone
B. LAMA alone
C. LAMA + LABA
D. ICS alone
*Rationale: Group E: LAMA + LABA; add ICS if eosinophils ≥300.*

6. A 70-year-old with osteoporosis, T-score -2.8 at femoral neck. First-line therapy?
A. Calcium + vitamin D
B. Alendronate
C. Raloxifene
D. Teriparatide
Rationale: Bisphosphonates first-line for osteoporosis.

7. A patient with CKD stage 4 (eGFR 25) and hyperkalemia (K 5.8). Which medication
should be held?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Atorvastatin
D. Levothyroxine
Rationale: MRAs increase potassium; hold if K >5.5.

8. A 60-year-old with osteoarthritis and moderate knee pain. First-line treatment?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Topical NSAID
C. Oral NSAID
D. Tramadol
Rationale: Topical NSAID first-line; oral if inadequate.

9. A patient with gout and CKD stage 3 starts allopurinol. Starting dose?
A. 300 mg daily
B. 50–100 mg daily
C. 100 mg BID

,D. 600 mg daily
Rationale: Start low in CKD (50–100 mg) and titrate.

10. A 65-year-old with BPH, AUA symptom score 18. First-line medical therapy?
A. Finasteride
B. Tamsulosin
C. Dutasteride
D. Surgery
Rationale: Alpha-blockers provide rapid symptom relief.

11. A patient with HFpEF and hypertension. First-line medication?
A. Beta-blocker
B. Spironolactone
C. Digoxin
D. Hydralazine
Rationale: MRAs and SGLT2i improve outcomes in HFpEF.

12. A 50-year-old with type 2 DM, A1c 7.5%, BMI 35, no ASCVD. Add to metformin?
A. Glipizide
B. Semaglutide
C. Insulin glargine
D. Pioglitazone
*Rationale: GLP-1 agonists preferred for weight loss and CV benefit.*

13. A patient with COPD on triple therapy (ICS/LABA/LAMA) has eosinophils 450. Benefit
of ICS?
A. No benefit
B. Reduces exacerbations
C. Worsens outcomes
D. Only for asthma
Rationale: Eosinophils ≥300 predict ICS response.

14. A 75-year-old with Alzheimer's disease, MMSE 18, no behavioral issues. Start?
A. Memantine
B. Donepezil
C. Vitamin E

, D. Antipsychotic
Rationale: Cholinesterase inhibitors for mild-moderate AD.

15. A patient with CKD and anemia, Hb 9.5, ferritin 800, TSAT 20%. Next step?
A. Oral iron
B. ESA (erythropoiesis-stimulating agent)
C. Transfusion
D. B12
Rationale: Functional iron deficiency; ESA indicated if Hb <10.

16. A 60-year-old with Parkinson's disease, tremor, bradykinesia. First-line?
A. Levodopa/carbidopa
B. Levodopa/carbidopa
C. Pramipexole
D. Amantadine
Rationale: Levodopa most effective; dopamine agonists for younger.

17. A patient with type 2 DM and ASCVD on metformin. Add for CV benefit?
A. Glipizide
B. Empagliflozin or liraglutide
C. Insulin
D. Pioglitazone
*Rationale: SGLT2i and GLP-1 agonists reduce MACE.*

18. A 55-year-old with chronic low back pain, no red flags. First-line?
A. Opioids
B. Non-pharmacologic (exercise, PT) + acetaminophen/NSAID
C. Gabapentin
D. Muscle relaxant
Rationale: Non-pharmacologic first; opioids last resort.

19. A patient with HFrEF on optimal therapy has EF 30% and LBBB 150 ms. Device
indicated?
A. ICD alone
B. CRT-D
C. Pacemaker

Geschreven voor

Instelling
NURS 5220
Vak
NURS 5220

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Geüpload op
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