Practitioner 2026 Updated Nursing Questions
| UTA Prep | Answers & Rationales
1. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance,
and constipation. TSH is 12.5 mIU/mL (normal 0.4–4.0). What is the most
appropriate initial treatment?
A. Methimazole 10 mg daily
B. Levothyroxine 1.6 mcg/kg/day
C. Radioactive iodine ablation
D. Levothyroxine 50 mcg daily with gradual titration
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypothyroidism treatment starts with low-dose levothyroxine
(25-50 mcg) in older adults or those with cardiac history, then titrated.
Methimazole is for hyperthyroidism.
2. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes has BP 145/90 mmHg and urine
albumin-to-creatinine ratio 80 mg/g. Which antihypertensive is preferred?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Amlodipine
C. Lisinopril
D. Metoprolol
Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) are preferred in diabetics with
albuminuria for renal protection.
3. A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks presents with headache,
blurred vision, and BP 160/100 mmHg. Urine dipstick shows 3+ protein.
What is the most appropriate next step?
,A. Prescribe labetalol and send home
B. Admit for magnesium sulfate and fetal monitoring
C. Prescribe methyldopa and follow up in 1 week
D. Recommend bed rest at home
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia (BP ≥160/110 with proteinuria) requires
hospital admission for magnesium sulfate seizure prophylaxis.
4. A 55-year-old male presents with acute tearing chest pain radiating to the
back. BP is 180/100 mmHg in right arm and 140/80 mmHg in left arm. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis
Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic dissection presents with tearing chest pain radiating to
back and asymmetric blood pressures.
5. A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis is started on alendronate. Which
instruction is most important?
A. Take with food to prevent nausea
B. Take on empty stomach with full glass of water and remain upright for 30
minutes
C. Take at bedtime with small snack
D. Take with calcium supplements for better absorption
Answer: B
Rationale: Alendronate must be taken on empty stomach with full water,
and patient must remain upright for 30 minutes to prevent esophagitis.
,6. A 25-year-old male presents with knee swelling after twisting injury.
Lachman test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medial meniscus tear
B. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
C. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
D. Patellar dislocation
Answer: B
Rationale: Positive Lachman test is highly sensitive and specific for ACL tear.
7. A 65-year-old male with COPD has FEV1/FVC ratio 0.65 and FEV1 45%
predicted. According to GOLD guidelines, what is the severity classification?
A. GOLD 1 (Mild)
B. GOLD 2 (Moderate)
C. GOLD 3 (Severe)
D. GOLD 4 (Very Severe)
Answer: C
Rationale: GOLD classification: FEV1 30-49% = GOLD 3 (Severe).
8. A 48-year-old female presents with episodic palpitations, sweating,
headache, and hypertension. Which test is most helpful in diagnosis?
A. Thyroid function tests
B. 24-hour urinary metanephrines
C. Serum cortisol
D. ECG
Answer: B
Rationale: Symptoms suggest pheochromocytoma. 24-hour urinary
metanephrines are best screening test.
, 9. A 2-year-old child presents with fever, cough, and inspiratory stridor that
worsens at night. Child is sitting upright with drooling. What is most
appropriate next step?
A. Oral antibiotics and discharge
B. Nebulized epinephrine and observation
C. Immediate airway assessment in controlled setting (OR)
D. Chest X-ray
Answer: C
Rationale: Stridor + drooling + sitting upright suggest epiglottitis – airway
emergency requiring ENT/anesthesia.
10. A 50-year-old female presents with 3-cm thyroid nodule found
incidentally on CT. TSH is normal. What is the next best step?
A. Repeat TSH in 6 months
B. Thyroid ultrasound with risk stratification
C. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy
D. Thyroid scan
Answer: B
Rationale: For thyroid nodule with normal TSH, ultrasound with risk
stratification (TI-RADS) is first step.
11. A 35-year-old male presents with acute-onset severe testicular pain,
nausea, vomiting. Testis is tender and elevated. Cremasteric reflex is absent.
What is most appropriate next step?
A. Scrotal ultrasound
B. Emergent surgical consultation for possible testicular torsion
C. Urinalysis and antibiotics
D. Ice and scrotal elevation