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NURS 5433 FNP II Midterm Exam – 300 Questions University of Texas at Arlington | 2026 | FNP Certification Prep

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Pass your NURS 5432 FNP I Final Exam and prepare for AANP/ANCC board certification with this comprehensive study guide featuring 300 high-yield practice questions and detailed rationales! This essential resource covers all core topics for the Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) final exam including hypertension management (ACE inhibitors preferred in diabetes for renal protection, CCB/thiazide preferred in Black patients, labetalol safe in pregnancy), diabetes mellitus (SGLT2 inhibitors for CKD progression, GLP-1 agonists for weight loss and cardiovascular benefit, metformin first-line, insulin when A1c 9% on multiple agents, type 1 DM requires basal-bolus regimen, hypoglycemia unawareness raises A1c target to 7.5-8.0% with CGM), LDL cholesterol goals (very high-risk patients with DM + ASCVD: LDL 55 mg/dL, high-intensity statin for LDL ≥190), heart failure (HFrEF: GDMT including beta-blockers, ACEi/ARB, MRA/spironolactone, SGLT2i; CRT-D for LBBB ≥150 ms; IV iron for iron deficiency; hold beta-blockers in acute decompensated HF with hypotension; spironolactone for HFpEF, BNP 400 highly suggestive of HF), COPD (GOLD Group E initial therapy LAMA+LABA, ICS if eosinophils ≥300, chronic hypercapnia benefits from home NIV, LAMA reduces mortality), osteoporosis (bisphosphonates first-line, drug holiday after 3-5 years if low fracture risk, denosumab withdrawal requires transition to bisphosphonate), CKD (SGLT2 inhibitors slow progression, hold spironolactone if K5.5, target BP 130/80 per KDIGO, phosphate binders for hyperphosphatemia, ESA for Hb 10 with target 10-11.5, hyperkalemia with ECG changes: IV calcium gluconate first), gout (allopurinol starting dose 50-100 mg daily in CKD, acute treatment with NSAID/colchicine/steroids), BPH (alpha-blockers for rapid symptom relief), cirrhosis (lactulose first-line for hepatic encephalopathy, diagnostic paracentesis before antibiotics for SBP, non-selective beta-blockers or band ligation for variceal primary prophylaxis, MELD-Na predicts 90-day mortality and transplant priority), Parkinson's disease (levodopa/carbidopa most effective, amantadine for dyskinesias, avoid dopamine agonists in elderly due to fall risk), acute and urgent care (aortic dissection: tearing chest pain with BP differential, appendicitis: periumbilical then RLQ pain, cauda equina: urinary retention + saddle anesthesia = emergent MRI, central retinal artery occlusion: painless monocular vision loss + cherry red spot, anaphylaxis: epinephrine IM first, hypertensive emergency: IV labetalol or nicardipine for end-organ damage, Bell's palsy vs stroke: forehead sparing differentiates central vs peripheral, intussusception in child: currant jelly stool + ultrasound target sign, pyloric stenosis: projectile vomiting + olive mass), women's health (endometriosis, PCOS Rotterdam criteria (2 of 3: oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries), letrozole first-line for ovulation induction, LNG-IUD for heavy menstrual bleeding, postmenopausal bleeding = endometrial biopsy, vulvovaginal candidiasis treatment with fluconazole 150 mg x1, BV with metronidazole, trichomoniasis treat both partners, preeclampsia: BP ≥140/90 + proteinuria after 20 weeks, placenta previa: painless bleeding - avoid digital exam, BRCA1 screening: mammogram + breast MRI starting at age 30), men's health (BPH: AUA symptom score first, tamsulosin first-line, PSA elevation with abnormal DRE = biopsy, active surveillance for low-risk prostate cancer, testicular torsion: absent cremasteric reflex + absent flow on ultrasound = emergency, varicocele "bag of worms", erectile dysfunction: PDE5 inhibitors first-line, contraindicated with nitrates, priapism 4 hours = emergency aspiration), geriatrics & end-of-life care (delirium vs dementia: acute onset, fluctuating, inattention, most common cause of falls is gait and balance disorders, STOPP/START criteria for appropriate prescribing, Beers criteria: avoid amitriptyline (TCA) in elderly due to fall risk, MMSE scoring (20-24 mild dementia), non-pharmacologic interventions first for behavioral symptoms of dementia, tube feeding NOT recommended in advanced dementia, CBT-I first-line for insomnia in elderly, POLST forms are actionable medical orders for current serious illness, surrogate decision-maker hierarchy (spouse first), low-dose morphine first-line for dyspnea in terminal illness, haloperidol for terminal delirium, hand feeding preferred over tube feeding in advanced dementia). Perfect for Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) students preparing for final exams, clinical rotations, and AANP or ANCC board certification.

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NURS 5433 FNP II Midterm – Family Nurse
Practitioner 2026 Updated Nursing Questions
| UTA Prep | Answers & Rationales
1. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance,
and constipation. TSH is 12.5 mIU/mL (normal 0.4–4.0). What is the most
appropriate initial treatment?
A. Methimazole 10 mg daily
B. Levothyroxine 1.6 mcg/kg/day
C. Radioactive iodine ablation
D. Levothyroxine 50 mcg daily with gradual titration
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypothyroidism treatment starts with low-dose levothyroxine
(25-50 mcg) in older adults or those with cardiac history, then titrated.
Methimazole is for hyperthyroidism.


2. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes has BP 145/90 mmHg and urine
albumin-to-creatinine ratio 80 mg/g. Which antihypertensive is preferred?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Amlodipine
C. Lisinopril
D. Metoprolol
Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) are preferred in diabetics with
albuminuria for renal protection.


3. A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks presents with headache,
blurred vision, and BP 160/100 mmHg. Urine dipstick shows 3+ protein.
What is the most appropriate next step?

,A. Prescribe labetalol and send home
B. Admit for magnesium sulfate and fetal monitoring
C. Prescribe methyldopa and follow up in 1 week
D. Recommend bed rest at home
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia (BP ≥160/110 with proteinuria) requires
hospital admission for magnesium sulfate seizure prophylaxis.


4. A 55-year-old male presents with acute tearing chest pain radiating to the
back. BP is 180/100 mmHg in right arm and 140/80 mmHg in left arm. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis
Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic dissection presents with tearing chest pain radiating to
back and asymmetric blood pressures.


5. A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis is started on alendronate. Which
instruction is most important?
A. Take with food to prevent nausea
B. Take on empty stomach with full glass of water and remain upright for 30
minutes
C. Take at bedtime with small snack
D. Take with calcium supplements for better absorption
Answer: B
Rationale: Alendronate must be taken on empty stomach with full water,
and patient must remain upright for 30 minutes to prevent esophagitis.

,6. A 25-year-old male presents with knee swelling after twisting injury.
Lachman test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medial meniscus tear
B. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
C. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
D. Patellar dislocation
Answer: B
Rationale: Positive Lachman test is highly sensitive and specific for ACL tear.


7. A 65-year-old male with COPD has FEV1/FVC ratio 0.65 and FEV1 45%
predicted. According to GOLD guidelines, what is the severity classification?
A. GOLD 1 (Mild)
B. GOLD 2 (Moderate)
C. GOLD 3 (Severe)
D. GOLD 4 (Very Severe)
Answer: C
Rationale: GOLD classification: FEV1 30-49% = GOLD 3 (Severe).


8. A 48-year-old female presents with episodic palpitations, sweating,
headache, and hypertension. Which test is most helpful in diagnosis?
A. Thyroid function tests
B. 24-hour urinary metanephrines
C. Serum cortisol
D. ECG
Answer: B
Rationale: Symptoms suggest pheochromocytoma. 24-hour urinary
metanephrines are best screening test.

, 9. A 2-year-old child presents with fever, cough, and inspiratory stridor that
worsens at night. Child is sitting upright with drooling. What is most
appropriate next step?
A. Oral antibiotics and discharge
B. Nebulized epinephrine and observation
C. Immediate airway assessment in controlled setting (OR)
D. Chest X-ray
Answer: C
Rationale: Stridor + drooling + sitting upright suggest epiglottitis – airway
emergency requiring ENT/anesthesia.


10. A 50-year-old female presents with 3-cm thyroid nodule found
incidentally on CT. TSH is normal. What is the next best step?
A. Repeat TSH in 6 months
B. Thyroid ultrasound with risk stratification
C. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy
D. Thyroid scan
Answer: B
Rationale: For thyroid nodule with normal TSH, ultrasound with risk
stratification (TI-RADS) is first step.


11. A 35-year-old male presents with acute-onset severe testicular pain,
nausea, vomiting. Testis is tender and elevated. Cremasteric reflex is absent.
What is most appropriate next step?
A. Scrotal ultrasound
B. Emergent surgical consultation for possible testicular torsion
C. Urinalysis and antibiotics
D. Ice and scrotal elevation

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