Chamberlain College of Nursing Actual Exam –
Complete Questions and Answers with Detailed
Rationales – Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Section 1: Foundations of Advanced Pathophysiology & Cellular Dysfunction
Q1: A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure has an enlarged left ventricle on
echocardiogram. The cardiologist explains this is an adaptive response to chronic
volume overload. What type of cellular adaptation is occurring?
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy [CORRECT]
C. Hyperplasia
D. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypertrophy is the increase in cell size, not number, which is exactly what
happens when cardiac muscle cells grow larger in response to chronic workload. The
heart muscle gets bigger to pump against higher afterload.
Q2: A patient with chronic bronchitis has a biopsy showing normal columnar epithelium
replaced by stratified squamous epithelium in the bronchial lining. What is this adaptive
change called?
A. Dysplasia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Metaplasia [CORRECT]
D. Anaplasia
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type with another,
and in the airways, chronic irritation often causes columnar epithelium to switch to
squamous. It's protective but can be a precursor to dysplasia if the irritation continues.
Q3: A liver biopsy from a patient with hepatitis shows cells that are disorganized, vary in
size and shape, and show loss of normal maturation patterns. What term describes
these changes?
A. Metaplasia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Dysplasia [CORRECT]
D. Hypertrophy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dysplasia describes disordered, dysfunctional cellular growth with loss of
normal tissue architecture. It's considered a pre-neoplastic change and is graded based
on how severe the disorganization appears.
Q4: A patient suffers a myocardial infarction. The affected cardiac tissue appears firm
and pale with preserved tissue architecture on microscopy. What type of necrosis is
this?
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis [CORRECT]
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coagulative necrosis is the classic pattern in ischemic injury to solid organs
like the heart, where the tissue architecture stays preserved for a few days even though
the cells are dead. It results from protein denaturation blocking enzymatic digestion.
Q5: A patient with poorly controlled diabetes develops a brain abscess. The necrotic
center is soft, liquid, and filled with pus. What type of necrosis is present?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Caseous necrosis
C. Liquefactive necrosis [CORRECT]
D. Gangrenous necrosis
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Liquefactive necrosis happens when enzymatic digestion turns tissue into
liquid, which is exactly what you see in brain infarcts and abscesses. The brain has a lot
of lipids and few structural proteins, so it liquefies rather than coagulating.
Q6: A patient with tuberculosis has granulomas containing soft, friable, cheese-like
necrotic material. What type of necrosis is characteristic of this finding?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis [CORRECT]
D. Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Caseous necrosis is the classic pattern in TB granulomas, named for its
cottage cheese appearance on gross exam. It represents a combination of coagulative
and liquefactive patterns triggered by the immune response to mycobacteria.
Q7: A patient with acute pancreatitis has areas of chalky white deposits in the
peripancreatic fat on CT scan. What explains this finding?
A. Coagulative necrosis of the pancreas
B. Fat necrosis from lipase activation [CORRECT]
C. Caseous necrosis from infection
D. Apoptosis of adipocytes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, activated pancreatic lipase breaks down fat cells into
fatty acids, which then combine with calcium to form chalky soap deposits. That's the
fat necrosis you see on imaging and during surgery.
Q8: A patient develops redness, heat, swelling, and pain at a surgical incision site 24
hours post-op. Which chemical mediator is most responsible for the initial vasodilation
and increased vascular permeability?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Histamine [CORRECT]
C. Interleukin-1
D. Bradykinin
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Histamine is released from mast cells almost immediately after tissue injury
and is the main driver of early vasodilation and capillary leakage. It causes the classic
rubor, calor, tumor, and dolor of acute inflammation.
Q9: A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has chronic inflammation in the synovium
characterized by lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages. What type of
inflammatory cell is primarily responsible for forming granulomas in chronic
inflammation?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Macrophages [CORRECT]
D. Basophils
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Macrophages are the workhorses of chronic inflammation. They phagocytose
debris, present antigens, and when activated in certain patterns, they fuse into
multinucleated giant cells that form granulomas.
Q10: A patient has a clean surgical incision closed with sutures. The wound edges are
approximated, and healing occurs with minimal scarring. What type of healing is this?
A. Secondary intention
B. Tertiary intention
C. Primary intention [CORRECT]
D. Regeneration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary intention means the wound edges are brought together and held in
place, like with sutures or staples. It heals faster and with less scar tissue because
there's a smaller gap to bridge.
Q11: A patient with poorly controlled diabetes has a large open wound on the foot that
is granulating from the bottom up. The wound edges cannot be approximated. What
type of healing is occurring?
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention [CORRECT]
C. Tertiary intention
D. Regeneration
Correct Answer: B