ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored RN 2026 Updated Study Pack with
Screenshots, Questions, Answers & Rationales
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 14 weeks gestation. Which finding meets the
definition of a probable sign of pregnancy?
A) The client reports feeling fetal movement
B) The provider palpates fetal outline through the abdomen
C) The nurse hears fetal heart tones with a Doppler
D) The client has a positive urine pregnancy test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Probable signs are objective findings detected by an examiner. Fetal
heart tones detected by Doppler (usually by 10–12 weeks) are a probable sign.
Quickening (fetal movement) is a presumptive sign. Palpating fetal outline is also
a probable sign, but hearing heart tones is more definitive. A positive pregnancy
test is also a probable sign, but it can have false positives.
,2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is 6 weeks pregnant about the
expected physiological changes of pregnancy. Which of the following should the
nurse include?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Increased blood pressure in the second trimester
C) Increased maternal blood volume
D) Decreased glomerular filtration rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Maternal blood volume increases by 40–50% during pregnancy to
support placental perfusion and fetal growth. Cardiac output increases, not
decreases. Blood pressure typically decreases in the second trimester due to
peripheral vasodilation. Glomerular filtration rate increases.
,3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is 16 weeks pregnant.
The client's rubella titer is 1:8 (low). Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A) Administer rubella vaccine now
B) Repeat rubella titer at 28 weeks
C) Administer rubella vaccine postpartum
D) No action needed because the titer is protective
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A rubella titer <1:10 indicates non-immunity. Rubella vaccine is a live
virus vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy. The vaccine should be
administered in the immediate postpartum period before discharge, and the
client should avoid pregnancy for 4 weeks.
, 4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 weeks pregnant. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Heartburn after eating spicy foods
B) Frequent urination
C) Nosebleeds (epistaxis)
D) Blurred vision with spots
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Blurred vision with spots (scotomata) can indicate severe preeclampsia
and requires immediate evaluation. Heartburn, frequent urination, and
nosebleeds are common discomforts of pregnancy due to hormonal changes and
increased blood volume.
Screenshots, Questions, Answers & Rationales
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 14 weeks gestation. Which finding meets the
definition of a probable sign of pregnancy?
A) The client reports feeling fetal movement
B) The provider palpates fetal outline through the abdomen
C) The nurse hears fetal heart tones with a Doppler
D) The client has a positive urine pregnancy test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Probable signs are objective findings detected by an examiner. Fetal
heart tones detected by Doppler (usually by 10–12 weeks) are a probable sign.
Quickening (fetal movement) is a presumptive sign. Palpating fetal outline is also
a probable sign, but hearing heart tones is more definitive. A positive pregnancy
test is also a probable sign, but it can have false positives.
,2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is 6 weeks pregnant about the
expected physiological changes of pregnancy. Which of the following should the
nurse include?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Increased blood pressure in the second trimester
C) Increased maternal blood volume
D) Decreased glomerular filtration rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Maternal blood volume increases by 40–50% during pregnancy to
support placental perfusion and fetal growth. Cardiac output increases, not
decreases. Blood pressure typically decreases in the second trimester due to
peripheral vasodilation. Glomerular filtration rate increases.
,3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is 16 weeks pregnant.
The client's rubella titer is 1:8 (low). Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A) Administer rubella vaccine now
B) Repeat rubella titer at 28 weeks
C) Administer rubella vaccine postpartum
D) No action needed because the titer is protective
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A rubella titer <1:10 indicates non-immunity. Rubella vaccine is a live
virus vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy. The vaccine should be
administered in the immediate postpartum period before discharge, and the
client should avoid pregnancy for 4 weeks.
, 4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 weeks pregnant. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Heartburn after eating spicy foods
B) Frequent urination
C) Nosebleeds (epistaxis)
D) Blurred vision with spots
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Blurred vision with spots (scotomata) can indicate severe preeclampsia
and requires immediate evaluation. Heartburn, frequent urination, and
nosebleeds are common discomforts of pregnancy due to hormonal changes and
increased blood volume.
