CLEET Law Block Examination
Council on Law Enforcement Education and Training — Oklahoma
2026/2027 Practice Exam — 75 Questions with Verified Solutions
Domain 1: Oklahoma Criminal Code & Statutes (Title 21 O.S.)
1. Under Title 21 O.S. § 21, which of the following is classified as a misdemeanor in
Oklahoma?
A. First-degree murder
B. Armed robbery
C. Petit larceny (theft of property valued under $1,000)
D. First-degree burglary
Rationale: Petit larceny, defined under Title 21 O.S. § 1704, involves the theft of property valued at
less than $1,000 and is classified as a misdemeanor in Oklahoma. First-degree murder, armed
robbery, and first-degree burglary are all felony offenses under Oklahoma criminal code, each
carrying significantly higher penalties including potential imprisonment in the state penitentiary.
2. According to Title 21 O.S. § 701.7, first-degree murder in Oklahoma may include all of
the following EXCEPT:
A. Murder committed by means of poison
B. Murder committed while committing a felony (felony murder rule)
C. Murder committed in the heat of passion upon adequate provocation
D. Murder committed for the purpose of avoiding lawful arrest
Rationale: Murder committed in the heat of passion upon adequate provocation is the statutory
definition of manslaughter in the first degree under Title 21 O.S. § 711, not first-degree murder. First-
degree murder under § 701.7 includes murder by poison, lying in wait, torture, or any other
premeditated act, as well as felony murder (death occurring during the commission of a specified
felony) and murder committed to avoid arrest.
3. Under Title 21 O.S. § 641, assault with a dangerous weapon is classified as:
A. A misdemeanor punishable by up to one year in county jail
B. A felony punishable by up to life imprisonment
C. A traffic infraction
D. A municipal ordinance violation
Rationale: Assault with a dangerous weapon, codified at Title 21 O.S. § 641, is classified as a felony
in Oklahoma punishable by imprisonment in the state penitentiary for a period not exceeding life.
This offense involves assault or battery upon another person with the use of any sharp or dangerous
weapon or by means of force likely to produce death or great bodily harm.
4. Which Oklahoma statute defines 'burglary in the first degree'?
A. Title 21 O.S. § 1431
B. Title 21 O.S. § 1435
C. Title 21 O.S. § 1436
D. Title 21 O.S. § 1440
Rationale: Title 21 O.S. § 1436 defines first-degree burglary as the breaking and entering of the
dwelling of another, in which there is a human being, with the intent to commit a crime. First-degree
burglary is a felony punishable by a minimum of seven years' imprisonment. Second-degree
burglary under § 1435 applies to structures other than inhabited dwellings or when no person is
present.
5. Under Title 21 O.S. § 51, an accomplice to a crime is defined as a person who:
, A. Witnesses a crime but does not report it to law enforcement
B. Aids, abets, advises, or encourages the commission of a crime, or who
conspires with another to commit it
C. Accidentally provides materials later used in a crime without knowledge of the criminal
purpose
D. Is present at the scene of a crime but takes no affirmative action
Rationale: Title 21 O.S. § 51 defines principals in the first degree (those who actually commit the
act) and principals in the second degree (accomplices who aid, abet, counsel, or encourage the
crime). All principals are equally punishable under Oklahoma law. Mere presence without
affirmative participation or knowledge does not establish accomplice liability.
6. Under Title 21 O.S. § 652, what distinguishes 'robbery' from 'larceny'?
A. Robbery involves taking property by stealth; larceny involves force
B. Robbery involves taking property from a person or in their presence by force or
fear; larceny does not require force or fear against a person
C. Robbery only applies to motor vehicles; larceny applies to all other property
D. Robbery is a lesser included offense of larceny
Rationale: Robbery under Title 21 O.S. § 791 is the wrongful taking of personal property in the
possession of another, from his person or immediate presence, and against his will, accomplished by
means of force or fear. The key distinction from larceny is the element of force or intimidation
directed at a person. Armed robbery (§ 801) involves the use or threat of a dangerous weapon.
7. Title 21 O.S. § 840.2 classifies which of the following controlled dangerous substance
(CDS) offenses as a felony carrying a potential life sentence?
A. Simple possession of marijuana
B. Trafficking in illegal drugs
C. Possession of drug paraphernalia
D. Failure to affix a tax stamp to CDS
Rationale: Trafficking in illegal drugs under Title 63 O.S. § 2-415 (referenced in CDS enforcement
under Title 21) carries the most severe penalties, including potential life imprisonment depending on
the quantity and type of substance involved. Simple possession of marijuana and drug
paraphernalia possession are generally misdemeanors (with some exceptions), and failure to affix a
tax stamp is a separate violation with different penalties.
8. Under Title 21 O.S. § 651, what constitutes 'larceny from the person'?
A. Taking property from an unattended vehicle
B. Taking property from a retail store by concealment
C. Taking property from the person of another without their consent and without
use of force or fear
D. Taking property left at a residence by a guest
Rationale: Larceny from the person under Title 21 O.S. § 651 involves the taking of personal
property from the person of another without their consent. Unlike robbery, larceny from the person
does not involve force or intimidation—if force or fear is used, the offense elevates to robbery.
Larceny from the person is a felony in Oklahoma, reflecting the heightened invasion of personal
security involved.
Domain 2: Constitutional Law & Criminal Procedure
9. Under the Fourth Amendment, a 'search' occurs when:
A. An officer merely observes a person in a public place
B. The government intrudes upon a person's reasonable expectation of privacy
C. An officer asks a person a question during a consensual encounter
, D. A person voluntarily provides their name to an officer
Rationale: The Fourth Amendment protection against unreasonable searches and seizures, as
articulated in Katz v. United States (1967), applies when government action intrudes upon an
individual's reasonable expectation of privacy—both subjective (the person expected privacy) and
objective (society would recognize that expectation as reasonable). The Katz two-part test replaced
the property-based trespass analysis previously used.
10. Miranda v. Arizona (1966) requires law enforcement officers to advise a suspect of
their rights when:
A. The suspect is arrested for any offense, regardless of questioning
B. The suspect is in custody AND subject to interrogation (custodial interrogation)
C. The suspect is pulled over for a traffic violation
D. The suspect voluntarily comes to the police station to answer questions
Rationale: The Miranda rule requires that officers provide the now-familiar warnings (right to
remain silent, right to an attorney, etc.) only when two conditions are met simultaneously: custody
(the suspect is not free to leave, based on the objective reasonable person standard) and
interrogation (express questioning or its functional equivalent). A roadside traffic stop without
additional custodial questioning does not trigger Miranda.
11. Under Terry v. Ohio (1968), a peace officer may conduct a limited 'stop and frisk'
when:
A. The officer has probable cause to arrest the individual
B. The officer has reasonable, articulable suspicion that criminal activity is afoot
and that the person may be armed and dangerous
C. The officer has a hunch or intuition that the person is suspicious
D. The officer is conducting a general area search for contraband
Rationale: Terry v. Ohio established that officers may briefly detain a person for investigatory
purposes based on reasonable, articulable suspicion (a lower standard than probable cause) that
criminal activity is afoot. The associated 'frisk' is justified only when the officer has reasonable
suspicion that the detained person is armed and dangerous. The scope of both the detention and the
pat-down must be limited to the purposes that justify them.
12. The Fifth Amendment protection against double jeopardy prohibits:
A. Being tried twice for the same offense by the same sovereign
B. Being charged with multiple offenses arising from the same criminal act
C. Being questioned about an unrelated crime after being convicted
D. Being sued in civil court after a criminal trial
Rationale: The Fifth Amendment Double Jeopardy Clause prohibits successive criminal
prosecutions for the same offense by the same sovereign. However, dual sovereignty doctrine
permits separate state and federal prosecutions for the same conduct, as each is considered a
different sovereign. Multiple charges arising from a single act (e.g., felony murder and the
underlying felony) may be permitted if each requires proof of an additional element the other does
not.
13. Under the Sixth Amendment, the right to counsel 'attaches' at which stage of
criminal proceedings?
A. When the suspect is initially investigated
B. At the initiation of adversarial judicial proceedings, typically at arraignment or
formal charges
C. Only during the trial itself
D. At the time of sentencing only
Council on Law Enforcement Education and Training — Oklahoma
2026/2027 Practice Exam — 75 Questions with Verified Solutions
Domain 1: Oklahoma Criminal Code & Statutes (Title 21 O.S.)
1. Under Title 21 O.S. § 21, which of the following is classified as a misdemeanor in
Oklahoma?
A. First-degree murder
B. Armed robbery
C. Petit larceny (theft of property valued under $1,000)
D. First-degree burglary
Rationale: Petit larceny, defined under Title 21 O.S. § 1704, involves the theft of property valued at
less than $1,000 and is classified as a misdemeanor in Oklahoma. First-degree murder, armed
robbery, and first-degree burglary are all felony offenses under Oklahoma criminal code, each
carrying significantly higher penalties including potential imprisonment in the state penitentiary.
2. According to Title 21 O.S. § 701.7, first-degree murder in Oklahoma may include all of
the following EXCEPT:
A. Murder committed by means of poison
B. Murder committed while committing a felony (felony murder rule)
C. Murder committed in the heat of passion upon adequate provocation
D. Murder committed for the purpose of avoiding lawful arrest
Rationale: Murder committed in the heat of passion upon adequate provocation is the statutory
definition of manslaughter in the first degree under Title 21 O.S. § 711, not first-degree murder. First-
degree murder under § 701.7 includes murder by poison, lying in wait, torture, or any other
premeditated act, as well as felony murder (death occurring during the commission of a specified
felony) and murder committed to avoid arrest.
3. Under Title 21 O.S. § 641, assault with a dangerous weapon is classified as:
A. A misdemeanor punishable by up to one year in county jail
B. A felony punishable by up to life imprisonment
C. A traffic infraction
D. A municipal ordinance violation
Rationale: Assault with a dangerous weapon, codified at Title 21 O.S. § 641, is classified as a felony
in Oklahoma punishable by imprisonment in the state penitentiary for a period not exceeding life.
This offense involves assault or battery upon another person with the use of any sharp or dangerous
weapon or by means of force likely to produce death or great bodily harm.
4. Which Oklahoma statute defines 'burglary in the first degree'?
A. Title 21 O.S. § 1431
B. Title 21 O.S. § 1435
C. Title 21 O.S. § 1436
D. Title 21 O.S. § 1440
Rationale: Title 21 O.S. § 1436 defines first-degree burglary as the breaking and entering of the
dwelling of another, in which there is a human being, with the intent to commit a crime. First-degree
burglary is a felony punishable by a minimum of seven years' imprisonment. Second-degree
burglary under § 1435 applies to structures other than inhabited dwellings or when no person is
present.
5. Under Title 21 O.S. § 51, an accomplice to a crime is defined as a person who:
, A. Witnesses a crime but does not report it to law enforcement
B. Aids, abets, advises, or encourages the commission of a crime, or who
conspires with another to commit it
C. Accidentally provides materials later used in a crime without knowledge of the criminal
purpose
D. Is present at the scene of a crime but takes no affirmative action
Rationale: Title 21 O.S. § 51 defines principals in the first degree (those who actually commit the
act) and principals in the second degree (accomplices who aid, abet, counsel, or encourage the
crime). All principals are equally punishable under Oklahoma law. Mere presence without
affirmative participation or knowledge does not establish accomplice liability.
6. Under Title 21 O.S. § 652, what distinguishes 'robbery' from 'larceny'?
A. Robbery involves taking property by stealth; larceny involves force
B. Robbery involves taking property from a person or in their presence by force or
fear; larceny does not require force or fear against a person
C. Robbery only applies to motor vehicles; larceny applies to all other property
D. Robbery is a lesser included offense of larceny
Rationale: Robbery under Title 21 O.S. § 791 is the wrongful taking of personal property in the
possession of another, from his person or immediate presence, and against his will, accomplished by
means of force or fear. The key distinction from larceny is the element of force or intimidation
directed at a person. Armed robbery (§ 801) involves the use or threat of a dangerous weapon.
7. Title 21 O.S. § 840.2 classifies which of the following controlled dangerous substance
(CDS) offenses as a felony carrying a potential life sentence?
A. Simple possession of marijuana
B. Trafficking in illegal drugs
C. Possession of drug paraphernalia
D. Failure to affix a tax stamp to CDS
Rationale: Trafficking in illegal drugs under Title 63 O.S. § 2-415 (referenced in CDS enforcement
under Title 21) carries the most severe penalties, including potential life imprisonment depending on
the quantity and type of substance involved. Simple possession of marijuana and drug
paraphernalia possession are generally misdemeanors (with some exceptions), and failure to affix a
tax stamp is a separate violation with different penalties.
8. Under Title 21 O.S. § 651, what constitutes 'larceny from the person'?
A. Taking property from an unattended vehicle
B. Taking property from a retail store by concealment
C. Taking property from the person of another without their consent and without
use of force or fear
D. Taking property left at a residence by a guest
Rationale: Larceny from the person under Title 21 O.S. § 651 involves the taking of personal
property from the person of another without their consent. Unlike robbery, larceny from the person
does not involve force or intimidation—if force or fear is used, the offense elevates to robbery.
Larceny from the person is a felony in Oklahoma, reflecting the heightened invasion of personal
security involved.
Domain 2: Constitutional Law & Criminal Procedure
9. Under the Fourth Amendment, a 'search' occurs when:
A. An officer merely observes a person in a public place
B. The government intrudes upon a person's reasonable expectation of privacy
C. An officer asks a person a question during a consensual encounter
, D. A person voluntarily provides their name to an officer
Rationale: The Fourth Amendment protection against unreasonable searches and seizures, as
articulated in Katz v. United States (1967), applies when government action intrudes upon an
individual's reasonable expectation of privacy—both subjective (the person expected privacy) and
objective (society would recognize that expectation as reasonable). The Katz two-part test replaced
the property-based trespass analysis previously used.
10. Miranda v. Arizona (1966) requires law enforcement officers to advise a suspect of
their rights when:
A. The suspect is arrested for any offense, regardless of questioning
B. The suspect is in custody AND subject to interrogation (custodial interrogation)
C. The suspect is pulled over for a traffic violation
D. The suspect voluntarily comes to the police station to answer questions
Rationale: The Miranda rule requires that officers provide the now-familiar warnings (right to
remain silent, right to an attorney, etc.) only when two conditions are met simultaneously: custody
(the suspect is not free to leave, based on the objective reasonable person standard) and
interrogation (express questioning or its functional equivalent). A roadside traffic stop without
additional custodial questioning does not trigger Miranda.
11. Under Terry v. Ohio (1968), a peace officer may conduct a limited 'stop and frisk'
when:
A. The officer has probable cause to arrest the individual
B. The officer has reasonable, articulable suspicion that criminal activity is afoot
and that the person may be armed and dangerous
C. The officer has a hunch or intuition that the person is suspicious
D. The officer is conducting a general area search for contraband
Rationale: Terry v. Ohio established that officers may briefly detain a person for investigatory
purposes based on reasonable, articulable suspicion (a lower standard than probable cause) that
criminal activity is afoot. The associated 'frisk' is justified only when the officer has reasonable
suspicion that the detained person is armed and dangerous. The scope of both the detention and the
pat-down must be limited to the purposes that justify them.
12. The Fifth Amendment protection against double jeopardy prohibits:
A. Being tried twice for the same offense by the same sovereign
B. Being charged with multiple offenses arising from the same criminal act
C. Being questioned about an unrelated crime after being convicted
D. Being sued in civil court after a criminal trial
Rationale: The Fifth Amendment Double Jeopardy Clause prohibits successive criminal
prosecutions for the same offense by the same sovereign. However, dual sovereignty doctrine
permits separate state and federal prosecutions for the same conduct, as each is considered a
different sovereign. Multiple charges arising from a single act (e.g., felony murder and the
underlying felony) may be permitted if each requires proof of an additional element the other does
not.
13. Under the Sixth Amendment, the right to counsel 'attaches' at which stage of
criminal proceedings?
A. When the suspect is initially investigated
B. At the initiation of adversarial judicial proceedings, typically at arraignment or
formal charges
C. Only during the trial itself
D. At the time of sentencing only
