NSG 5140 FINAL EXAM NEWEST 2025 –
ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY –
SOUTH COLLEGE
Q1. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in cell size and organ
size in response to increased workload?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Dysplasia
Q2. A patient with chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease develops replacement
of normal stratified squamous epithelium in the lower esophagus with columnar
epithelium. This change is known as:
A. Anaplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Neoplasia
Q3. Which type of necrosis is classically associated with tuberculosis and is
characterized by a cheese-like appearance?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
,Q4. A 65-year-old male with a history of uncontrolled hypertension presents with
sudden severe chest pain radiating to the back. Aortic dissection is suspected.
Which layer of the arterial wall is most likely involved?
A. Tunica adventitia
B. Tunica media
C. Tunica intima
D. Vasa vasorum
Q5. In a patient with septic shock, hypotension persists despite fluid resuscitation.
Which mediator is primarily responsible for the profound vasodilation?
A. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
B. Interleukin-1
C. Nitric oxide
D. Platelet-activating factor
Q6. A newborn presents with bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. An
abdominal x-ray shows a “double bubble” sign. Which congenital anomaly is most
likely?
A. Hirschsprung disease
B. Malrotation with volvulus
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Meconium ileus
Q7. Which laboratory finding is most consistent with syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
A. Serum sodium 118 mEq/L, serum osmolality 250 mOsm/kg
B. Serum sodium 155 mEq/L, serum osmolality 320 mOsm/kg
C. Urine specific gravity 1.002
D. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
, Q8. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus develops nausea, vomiting, deep rapid
breathing, and a fruity breath odor. Which acid-base disturbance is most
expected?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Q9. In iron deficiency anemia, which red blood cell morphology is characteristic?
A. Macrocytic, normochromic
B. Microcytic, hypochromic
C. Normocytic, normochromic
D. Spherocytes
Q10. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus develops proteinuria,
hematuria, and hypertension. The most likely renal pathology is:
A. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (Class IV lupus nephritis)
B. Minimal change disease
C. Membranous nephropathy
D. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Q11. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial necrosis?
A. Creatine kinase-MB
B. Myoglobin
C. Troponin I
D. Lactate dehydrogenase
Q12. A patient presents with painless jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools.
Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. Which enzyme level is most
likely elevated due to biliary obstruction?
ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY –
SOUTH COLLEGE
Q1. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in cell size and organ
size in response to increased workload?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Dysplasia
Q2. A patient with chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease develops replacement
of normal stratified squamous epithelium in the lower esophagus with columnar
epithelium. This change is known as:
A. Anaplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Neoplasia
Q3. Which type of necrosis is classically associated with tuberculosis and is
characterized by a cheese-like appearance?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
,Q4. A 65-year-old male with a history of uncontrolled hypertension presents with
sudden severe chest pain radiating to the back. Aortic dissection is suspected.
Which layer of the arterial wall is most likely involved?
A. Tunica adventitia
B. Tunica media
C. Tunica intima
D. Vasa vasorum
Q5. In a patient with septic shock, hypotension persists despite fluid resuscitation.
Which mediator is primarily responsible for the profound vasodilation?
A. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
B. Interleukin-1
C. Nitric oxide
D. Platelet-activating factor
Q6. A newborn presents with bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. An
abdominal x-ray shows a “double bubble” sign. Which congenital anomaly is most
likely?
A. Hirschsprung disease
B. Malrotation with volvulus
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Meconium ileus
Q7. Which laboratory finding is most consistent with syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
A. Serum sodium 118 mEq/L, serum osmolality 250 mOsm/kg
B. Serum sodium 155 mEq/L, serum osmolality 320 mOsm/kg
C. Urine specific gravity 1.002
D. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
, Q8. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus develops nausea, vomiting, deep rapid
breathing, and a fruity breath odor. Which acid-base disturbance is most
expected?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Q9. In iron deficiency anemia, which red blood cell morphology is characteristic?
A. Macrocytic, normochromic
B. Microcytic, hypochromic
C. Normocytic, normochromic
D. Spherocytes
Q10. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus develops proteinuria,
hematuria, and hypertension. The most likely renal pathology is:
A. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (Class IV lupus nephritis)
B. Minimal change disease
C. Membranous nephropathy
D. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Q11. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial necrosis?
A. Creatine kinase-MB
B. Myoglobin
C. Troponin I
D. Lactate dehydrogenase
Q12. A patient presents with painless jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools.
Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. Which enzyme level is most
likely elevated due to biliary obstruction?
