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NUR 2063 ESSENTIALS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1 LATEST 2026/2027 ACCURATE TEST COMPLETE ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES (RELIABLE SOLUTIONS) NEWEST UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |INSTANT DO

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NUR 2063 ESSENTIALS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1 LATEST 2026/2027 ACCURATE TEST COMPLETE ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES (RELIABLE SOLUTIONS) NEWEST UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

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NUR 2063 ESSENTIALS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1 LATEST
2026/2027 ACCURATE TEST COMPLETE ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES (RELIABLE
SOLUTIONS) NEWEST UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION
|GUARANTEED SUCCESS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF


1. A patient is diagnosed with metabolic alkalosis. Which compensatory mechanism would the nurse
expect to occur?

A. Increased respiratory rate

B. Decreased respiratory rate

C. Increased renal excretion of bicarbonate

D. Decreased renal excretion of hydrogen ions



CORRECT ANSWER: B – Decreased respiratory rate. Rationale: In metabolic alkalosis, the body
compensates by hypoventilation to retain carbon dioxide (an acid), thereby lowering pH toward
normal.



2. During inflammation, which vascular change occurs first after tissue injury?

A. Increased vascular permeability

B. Transient vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation

C. Emigration of neutrophils

D. Formation of exudate



CORRECT ANSWER: B – Transient vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation. Rationale: Immediate
brief vasoconstriction occurs, then histamine and other mediators cause vasodilation to increase blood
flow to the injured area.



3. A patient has lower extremity edema due to right-sided heart failure. This is primarily caused by:

A. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure

,B. Increased hydrostatic pressure

C. Lymphatic obstruction

D. Increased capillary permeability



CORRECT ANSWER: B – Increased hydrostatic pressure. Rationale: Right-sided heart failure increases
venous pressure, raising capillary hydrostatic pressure and forcing fluid into interstitial space.



4. Which finding is characteristic of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Hemolytic anemia

B. Contact dermatitis

C. Anaphylaxis

D. Rheumatoid arthritis



CORRECT ANSWER: C – Anaphylaxis. Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity is I.e.-mediated, rapid, and
includes systemic anaphylaxis, urticarial, and asthma.



5. A patient’s blood gas shows pH 7.25, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 me/L. This indicates:

A. Metabolic acidosis

B. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Respiratory acidosis

D. Respiratory alkalosis



CORRECT ANSWER: C – Respiratory acidosis. Rationale: pH low (acidosis), PaCO2 elevated (above 45)
indicates primary respiratory acidosis with normal HCO3- (no metabolic compensation yet).



6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient with severe vomiting?

A. Hypernatremia

B. Hypokalemia

C. Hypercalcemia

D. Hypomagnesemia

,CORRECT ANSWER: B – Hypokalemia. Rationale: Loss of gastric acid and potassium in vomitus, plus
renal potassium wasting from metabolic alkalosis, leads to hypokalemia.



7. In cellular injury, irreversible cell death is marked by:

A. Loss of ATP production

B. Nuclear psychosis, karyorrhexis, or karyolitic

C. Cellular swelling

D. Fatty change



CORRECT ANSWER: B – Nuclear psychosis, karyorrhexis, or karyolitic. Rationale: Irreversible injury
shows permanent nuclear changes; reversible injury shows swelling and fatty change.



8. A patient develops urticarial and stridor after receiving penicillin. The nurse should first:

A. Administer diphenhydramine

B. Prepare for epinephrine administration

C. Start an IV line

D. Obtain a blood pressure



CORRECT ANSWER: B – Prepare for epinephrine administration. Rationale: Stridor indicates impending
airway compromise from anaphylaxis; epinephrine is first-line treatment to reverse bronchospasm and
hypotension.



9. Which condition is associated with chronic inflammation and granuloma formation?

A. Pneumonia

B. Tuberculosis

C. Appendicitis

D. Cellulitis

, CORRECT ANSWER: B – Tuberculosis. Rationale: TB causes granulomatous inflammation with
macrophages, epithelioid cells, and Langham’s giant cells.



10. A patient has a sodium level of 120 me/L. Which neurological symptom is most likely?

A. Confusion and seizures

B. Muscle tetany

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. Paralytic ileus



CORRECT ANSWER: A – Confusion and seizures. Rationale: Severe hyponatremia causes cerebral
edema due to osmotic fluid shift into brain cells, leading to altered mental status and seizures.



11. Which of the following is an example of a paraneoplastic syndrome?

A. Alopecia from chemotherapy

B. Hypercalcemia in squamous cell lung cancer

C. Pain from bone metastasis

D. Neutropenia from marrow infiltration



CORRECT ANSWER: B – Hypercalcemia in squamous cell lung cancer. Rationale: Paraneoplastic
syndromes are caused by tumor-produced hormones or immune cross-reactivity, not direct tumor
invasion.



12. During ischemia, cells switch to anaerobic metabolism, resulting in:

A. Increased ATP production

B. Alkaline intracellular pH

C. Increased lactic acid and decreased ATP

D. Decreased reactive oxygen species



CORRECT ANSWER: C – Increased lactic acid and decreased ATP. Rationale: Anaerobic glycolysis
produces only 2 ATP/glucose and lactic acid, causing acidosis and energy failure.

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