The Actual ATI RN Nutrition 2022 Proctored Exam
With NGN Comes With 140 Real Frequently Tested
Questions And 100% VERIFIED Answers, A Legit
And Effective Solution For Exam Success In 2026
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MULTIPLE CHOICES
Question 1
A client with a Stage 3 sacral pressure injury has the following lab results: albumin 2.4 g/dL, pre-albumin 9 mg/dL,
hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL, and unintentional weight loss of 10% in one month. Which interventions should the nurse
implement? (Select all that apply)
A) Consult a dietitian for a high-protein, high-calorie meal plan
B) Encourage fluid restriction to prevent electrolyte imbalance
C) Provide zinc and Vitamin C supplements as prescribed
D) Offer large meals three times per day to increase intake
E) Monitor intake/output and daily weight
Answer: A, C, E
High protein (1.25-1.5 g/kg/day) is essential for tissue repair; high calories prevent catabolism in wound healing .
Vitamin C is required for collagen synthesis, and zinc acts as a cofactor for enzymes involved in wound healing .
Daily weights provide the best objective trend for fluid and nutritional status . Fluid restriction is incorrect because
hydration maintains perfusion to the wound site; clients with anorexia experience early satiety, so small frequent
meals are better tolerated than large meals .
Question 2
Based on the previous question, the client weighs 60 kg. The recommended protein intake for a Stage 3 pressure
ulcer is 1.5 g/kg/day. How many grams of protein should this client consume per day?
Page | 1
,A) 60 grams
B) 75 grams
C) 90 grams
D) 120 grams
Answer: C
Calculation: 60 kg × 1.5 g/kg/day = 90 grams of protein per day . Protein requirements for wound healing are
significantly higher than the general population (0.8 g/kg/day) due to increased metabolic demands and tissue repair
needs.
Question 3
A client with dysphagia is prescribed a mechanical soft diet. Which food should the nurse include on the meal tray?
A) White rice
B) Whole wheat toast
C) Raw apple slices
D) Boiled chicken breast
Answer: A
White rice is soft and easily formed into a cohesive bolus for swallowing . Whole wheat toast is dry and difficult to
form into a bolus; raw apple slices and boiled chicken breast (unless finely minced) require significant chewing and
present choking hazards for dysphagia patients.
Question 4
A client receiving continuous enteral tube feedings via PEG tube has a gastric residual volume of 300 mL. What
should the nurse do first?
A) Discard the residual and increase the infusion rate
B) Hold the feeding and reassess in one hour
C) Administer a prokinetic medication as ordered
D) Flush the tube with 30 mL of warm water
Answer: B
Gastric residual volumes exceeding 250-500 mL (depending on facility policy) indicate delayed gastric emptying or
intolerance . The nurse should hold the feeding and reassess in one hour; discarding residuals and increasing the rate
could worsen distention and increase aspiration risk .
Page | 2
,Question 5
A pregnant client asks about preventing neural tube defects in her baby. Which nutrient is most important for her to
consume?
A) Calcium
B) Vitamin D
C) Folic acid
D) Iron
Answer: C
Folic acid (400-800 mcg daily) is essential for neural tube closure during the first 28 days of gestation, often before
a woman knows she is pregnant . Adequate folic acid intake reduces the risk of spina bifida and anencephaly .
Calcium supports bone development, vitamin D aids calcium absorption, and iron prevents maternal anemia, but
none prevent neural tube defects.
Question 6
A client with chronic kidney disease (stage 4, not on dialysis) has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which food
should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A) Apples
B) Cabbage
C) Bananas
D) White bread
Answer: C
Bananas are high in potassium (approximately 400-450 mg per medium banana) and must be avoided when serum
potassium exceeds 5.0 mEq/L . Apples, cabbage, and white bread are lower-potassium choices safe for renal
patients . Hyperkalemia (K >5.5) can cause cardiac dysrhythmias including peaked T waves, widened QRS, and
ventricular fibrillation.
Question 7
A client with heart failure is on a 2-gram sodium diet. The breakfast tray contains: scrambled eggs, bacon, white
toast with butter, orange juice, and canned tomato juice. Which item should the nurse remove from the tray?
A) Scrambled eggs
B) Bacon
Page | 3
, C) White toast
D) Orange juice
Answer: B
Bacon is a processed meat extremely high in sodium (approximately 200-300 mg per slice) . Scrambled eggs and
white toast are low-sodium (unless salt is added), and orange juice is sodium-free. Canned tomato juice is also high
in sodium and should be removed; the question asks for the first item to remove—bacon is clearly unacceptable on a
2-gram sodium restriction.
Question 8
A client with celiac disease asks which foods are safe to eat. Which food should the nurse recommend?
A) Rye bread
B) Wheat pasta
C) Quinoa
D) Barley soup
Answer: C
Quinoa is a naturally gluten-free grain safe for celiac disease . Rye, wheat, and barley all contain gluten proteins
that trigger an autoimmune reaction damaging the small intestinal villi in celiac patients . Safe alternatives include
rice, corn, quinoa, and certified gluten-free oats.
Question 9
A client with type 2 diabetes has a preprandial blood glucose of 180 mg/dL. Which meal selection is most
appropriate for this client?
A) Pancakes with syrup and bacon
B) Grilled chicken, brown rice, and steamed broccoli
C) Tuna salad sandwich on white bread
D) Pasta with Alfredo sauce
Answer: B
Grilled chicken (lean protein), brown rice (complex carbohydrate with fiber), and broccoli (non-starchy vegetable)
provide a balanced meal that promotes glycemic control by slowing glucose absorption . Pancakes with syrup cause
rapid blood glucose elevation; white bread has a high glycemic index; Alfredo sauce is high in fat and calories
without nutritional benefit.
Page | 4
With NGN Comes With 140 Real Frequently Tested
Questions And 100% VERIFIED Answers, A Legit
And Effective Solution For Exam Success In 2026
|GRADED A+
MULTIPLE CHOICES
Question 1
A client with a Stage 3 sacral pressure injury has the following lab results: albumin 2.4 g/dL, pre-albumin 9 mg/dL,
hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL, and unintentional weight loss of 10% in one month. Which interventions should the nurse
implement? (Select all that apply)
A) Consult a dietitian for a high-protein, high-calorie meal plan
B) Encourage fluid restriction to prevent electrolyte imbalance
C) Provide zinc and Vitamin C supplements as prescribed
D) Offer large meals three times per day to increase intake
E) Monitor intake/output and daily weight
Answer: A, C, E
High protein (1.25-1.5 g/kg/day) is essential for tissue repair; high calories prevent catabolism in wound healing .
Vitamin C is required for collagen synthesis, and zinc acts as a cofactor for enzymes involved in wound healing .
Daily weights provide the best objective trend for fluid and nutritional status . Fluid restriction is incorrect because
hydration maintains perfusion to the wound site; clients with anorexia experience early satiety, so small frequent
meals are better tolerated than large meals .
Question 2
Based on the previous question, the client weighs 60 kg. The recommended protein intake for a Stage 3 pressure
ulcer is 1.5 g/kg/day. How many grams of protein should this client consume per day?
Page | 1
,A) 60 grams
B) 75 grams
C) 90 grams
D) 120 grams
Answer: C
Calculation: 60 kg × 1.5 g/kg/day = 90 grams of protein per day . Protein requirements for wound healing are
significantly higher than the general population (0.8 g/kg/day) due to increased metabolic demands and tissue repair
needs.
Question 3
A client with dysphagia is prescribed a mechanical soft diet. Which food should the nurse include on the meal tray?
A) White rice
B) Whole wheat toast
C) Raw apple slices
D) Boiled chicken breast
Answer: A
White rice is soft and easily formed into a cohesive bolus for swallowing . Whole wheat toast is dry and difficult to
form into a bolus; raw apple slices and boiled chicken breast (unless finely minced) require significant chewing and
present choking hazards for dysphagia patients.
Question 4
A client receiving continuous enteral tube feedings via PEG tube has a gastric residual volume of 300 mL. What
should the nurse do first?
A) Discard the residual and increase the infusion rate
B) Hold the feeding and reassess in one hour
C) Administer a prokinetic medication as ordered
D) Flush the tube with 30 mL of warm water
Answer: B
Gastric residual volumes exceeding 250-500 mL (depending on facility policy) indicate delayed gastric emptying or
intolerance . The nurse should hold the feeding and reassess in one hour; discarding residuals and increasing the rate
could worsen distention and increase aspiration risk .
Page | 2
,Question 5
A pregnant client asks about preventing neural tube defects in her baby. Which nutrient is most important for her to
consume?
A) Calcium
B) Vitamin D
C) Folic acid
D) Iron
Answer: C
Folic acid (400-800 mcg daily) is essential for neural tube closure during the first 28 days of gestation, often before
a woman knows she is pregnant . Adequate folic acid intake reduces the risk of spina bifida and anencephaly .
Calcium supports bone development, vitamin D aids calcium absorption, and iron prevents maternal anemia, but
none prevent neural tube defects.
Question 6
A client with chronic kidney disease (stage 4, not on dialysis) has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which food
should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A) Apples
B) Cabbage
C) Bananas
D) White bread
Answer: C
Bananas are high in potassium (approximately 400-450 mg per medium banana) and must be avoided when serum
potassium exceeds 5.0 mEq/L . Apples, cabbage, and white bread are lower-potassium choices safe for renal
patients . Hyperkalemia (K >5.5) can cause cardiac dysrhythmias including peaked T waves, widened QRS, and
ventricular fibrillation.
Question 7
A client with heart failure is on a 2-gram sodium diet. The breakfast tray contains: scrambled eggs, bacon, white
toast with butter, orange juice, and canned tomato juice. Which item should the nurse remove from the tray?
A) Scrambled eggs
B) Bacon
Page | 3
, C) White toast
D) Orange juice
Answer: B
Bacon is a processed meat extremely high in sodium (approximately 200-300 mg per slice) . Scrambled eggs and
white toast are low-sodium (unless salt is added), and orange juice is sodium-free. Canned tomato juice is also high
in sodium and should be removed; the question asks for the first item to remove—bacon is clearly unacceptable on a
2-gram sodium restriction.
Question 8
A client with celiac disease asks which foods are safe to eat. Which food should the nurse recommend?
A) Rye bread
B) Wheat pasta
C) Quinoa
D) Barley soup
Answer: C
Quinoa is a naturally gluten-free grain safe for celiac disease . Rye, wheat, and barley all contain gluten proteins
that trigger an autoimmune reaction damaging the small intestinal villi in celiac patients . Safe alternatives include
rice, corn, quinoa, and certified gluten-free oats.
Question 9
A client with type 2 diabetes has a preprandial blood glucose of 180 mg/dL. Which meal selection is most
appropriate for this client?
A) Pancakes with syrup and bacon
B) Grilled chicken, brown rice, and steamed broccoli
C) Tuna salad sandwich on white bread
D) Pasta with Alfredo sauce
Answer: B
Grilled chicken (lean protein), brown rice (complex carbohydrate with fiber), and broccoli (non-starchy vegetable)
provide a balanced meal that promotes glycemic control by slowing glucose absorption . Pancakes with syrup cause
rapid blood glucose elevation; white bread has a high glycemic index; Alfredo sauce is high in fat and calories
without nutritional benefit.
Page | 4
