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ATI PN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2026 Practice Questions and Verified Answers | Complete NCLEX PN Readiness Study Guide

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Complete ATI PN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2026 guide

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ATI PN Comprehensive Exit

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ATI PN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2026
Practice Questions and Verified Answers |
Complete NCLEX PN Readiness Study Guide
• This practice guide contains 200 high-yield ATI PN Comprehensive Exit Exam
questions designed to mirror the actual NCLEX-PN exam format, covering all major
clinical topics tested.

• Study by attempting each question independently before revealing the answer —
focus on understanding the EXPERT RATIONALE, not memorizing options, to build
true clinical reasoning skills.



PART 1: SAFE AND EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT



1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel
resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider immediately?

A. Urine output of 35 mL/hr

B. Serosanguineous wound drainage

C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) on postoperative day 2

D. Sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath

E. Pain rated 5/10 at the incision site

CORRECT ANSWER: D. Sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath

EXPERT RATIONALE: Sudden chest pain and shortness of breath in a
postoperative client indicates a possible pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening
emergency requiring immediate provider notification. All other findings are
expected or minor postoperative occurrences.



2. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. Which client
should the nurse assess first?

A. A client with hypertension who has a blood pressure of 148/90 mmHg

,B. A client with diabetes whose blood glucose is 180 mg/dL

C. A client with asthma who has a respiratory rate of 28/min and oxygen saturation
of 88%

D. A client with heart failure who has 1+ pitting edema in both ankles

E. A client with arthritis reporting pain of 6/10

CORRECT ANSWER: C. A client with asthma who has a respiratory rate of
28/min and oxygen saturation of 88%

EXPERT RATIONALE: Using the ABC priority framework, airway and breathing
take priority. An SpO2 of 88% with tachypnea in an asthma client indicates
respiratory compromise requiring immediate intervention.



3. A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is
appropriate to delegate?

A. Assessing a client's breath sounds

B. Teaching a client about a low-sodium diet

C. Measuring and recording urine output

D. Interpreting a client's pain level

E. Changing a sterile wound dressing

CORRECT ANSWER: C. Measuring and recording urine output

EXPERT RATIONALE: Measuring and recording urine output is a routine, non-
invasive task within the scope of an AP. Assessment, teaching, interpretation, and
sterile procedures require nursing judgment and cannot be delegated.



4. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication list and notes the client takes
warfarin. Which statement by the client requires follow-up?

A. "I avoid eating large amounts of spinach."

,B. "I take ibuprofen when I have a headache."

C. "I get my INR checked regularly."

D. "I wear a medical alert bracelet."

E. "I use an electric razor to shave."

CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I take ibuprofen when I have a headache."

EXPERT RATIONALE: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase the risk of bleeding when
taken with warfarin. The client should use acetaminophen instead and must be
educated about this interaction.



5. A nurse is caring for a client in restraints. Which action is the nurse's
priority?

A. Document the client's behavior every 8 hours

B. Remove restraints and assess circulation every 2 hours

C. Ensure family members are informed only at discharge

D. Apply restraints as tightly as possible to prevent movement

E. Delegate restraint checks to the AP every shift

CORRECT ANSWER: B. Remove restraints and assess circulation every 2
hours

EXPERT RATIONALE: Restraint safety protocol requires removal and circulation
assessment at least every 2 hours to prevent neurovascular injury, skin breakdown,
and complications.



6. A nurse is preparing a client for surgery. The client states, "I changed my
mind. I don't want the surgery." What is the nurse's best response?

A. "You already signed the consent form, so we must proceed."

B. "Let me call your surgeon to speak with you."

, C. "I will note that you are anxious and proceed with preparation."

D. "Your family has already agreed on your behalf."

E. "Once preoperative medications are given, it's too late to change your mind."

CORRECT ANSWER: B. "Let me call your surgeon to speak with you."

EXPERT RATIONALE: A client has the legal right to withdraw consent at any
time. The nurse must notify the surgeon and stop all preparations. Proceeding
without consent is a violation of client rights.



7. A nurse is caring for a client with C. difficile infection. Which precaution
should be implemented?

A. Airborne precautions

B. Droplet precautions

C. Contact precautions with soap and water handwashing

D. Reverse isolation

E. Standard precautions only

CORRECT ANSWER: C. Contact precautions with soap and water
handwashing

EXPERT RATIONALE: C. difficile requires contact precautions. Alcohol-based
hand sanitizers are ineffective against C. diff spores; soap and water must be used
to mechanically remove spores from hands.



8. A nurse receives a telephone order from a provider. Which action should
the nurse take?

A. Ask another nurse to co-sign the telephone order immediately

B. Refuse the order and request a written order before proceeding

C. Read back the order to the provider and document it as a verbal/telephone order

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ATI PN Comprehensive Exit

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