NR 293 Cardiovascular Pharmacology Practice Pack 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which mechanism of action
correctly describes this medication?
A. Inhibits the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
B. Blocks the binding of Angiotensin II to its receptors
C. Blocks beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart
D. Inhibits the reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubule
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril work by inhibiting the angiotensin-converting
enzyme, which prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to the potent vasoconstrictor
angiotensin II.
2. Which side effect is specifically associated with ACE inhibitors due to the
accumulation of bradykinin?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Hypokalemia
C. Dry, non-productive cough
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: The accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs often causes a persistent, dry,
hacking cough in patients taking ACE inhibitors.
,3. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which
beta-blocker should the nurse clarify with the provider?
A. Propranolol
B. Atenolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Bisoprolol
Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both beta-1 and beta-2
receptors. Blocking beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, making it dangerous
for patients with asthma.
4. What is the primary site of action for loop diuretics like furosemide?
A. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Ascending limb of the Loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
Answer: C
Rationale: Loop diuretics primarily inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the
thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle.
5. A patient taking spironolactone should be monitored for which electrolyte
imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to the retention of
potassium, resulting in hyperkalemia.
, 6. The nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which vital sign is the
priority to assess before administration?
A. Heart rate
B. Temperature
C. Respiratory rate
D. Oxygen saturation
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers slow the heart rate. The nurse must assess the apical pulse;
usually, the medication is held if the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute.
7. A patient is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor closely?
A. Serum Uric Acid
B. Serum Hemoglobin
C. White Blood Cell Count
D. Serum Bilirubin
Answer: A
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics can decrease the excretion of uric acid, potentially leading to
hyperuricemia and triggering gout attacks.
8. Which of the following is a life-threatening adverse effect of ACE inhibitors?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Ototoxicity
C. Angioedema
D. Constipation
Answer: C
Rationale: Angioedema, characterized by swelling of the face, lips, and tongue, is a rare but
life-threatening side effect of ACE inhibitors that can compromise the airway.
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which mechanism of action
correctly describes this medication?
A. Inhibits the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
B. Blocks the binding of Angiotensin II to its receptors
C. Blocks beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart
D. Inhibits the reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubule
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril work by inhibiting the angiotensin-converting
enzyme, which prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to the potent vasoconstrictor
angiotensin II.
2. Which side effect is specifically associated with ACE inhibitors due to the
accumulation of bradykinin?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Hypokalemia
C. Dry, non-productive cough
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: The accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs often causes a persistent, dry,
hacking cough in patients taking ACE inhibitors.
,3. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which
beta-blocker should the nurse clarify with the provider?
A. Propranolol
B. Atenolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Bisoprolol
Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both beta-1 and beta-2
receptors. Blocking beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, making it dangerous
for patients with asthma.
4. What is the primary site of action for loop diuretics like furosemide?
A. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Ascending limb of the Loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
Answer: C
Rationale: Loop diuretics primarily inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the
thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle.
5. A patient taking spironolactone should be monitored for which electrolyte
imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to the retention of
potassium, resulting in hyperkalemia.
, 6. The nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which vital sign is the
priority to assess before administration?
A. Heart rate
B. Temperature
C. Respiratory rate
D. Oxygen saturation
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers slow the heart rate. The nurse must assess the apical pulse;
usually, the medication is held if the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute.
7. A patient is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor closely?
A. Serum Uric Acid
B. Serum Hemoglobin
C. White Blood Cell Count
D. Serum Bilirubin
Answer: A
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics can decrease the excretion of uric acid, potentially leading to
hyperuricemia and triggering gout attacks.
8. Which of the following is a life-threatening adverse effect of ACE inhibitors?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Ototoxicity
C. Angioedema
D. Constipation
Answer: C
Rationale: Angioedema, characterized by swelling of the face, lips, and tongue, is a rare but
life-threatening side effect of ACE inhibitors that can compromise the airway.
