NR 293 Pharmacology: Antibiotics & Anti-Infectives Practice Pack 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. A nurse is preparing to administer Cefazolin to a patient. Which allergy in the
patient’s history should the nurse report to the provider before administration?
A. Sulfa drugs
B. Penicillin
C. Peanuts
D. Latex
Answer: B
Rationale: Cephalosporins like Cefazolin share a similar chemical structure with
Penicillins; therefore, cross-sensitivity may occur in patients with a history of penicillin
allergy.
2. A patient taking Tetracycline should be instructed to avoid which of the
following to prevent decreased absorption?
A. Leafy green vegetables
B. Dairy products
C. Grapefruit juice
D. High-protein meals
Answer: B
Rationale: Tetracyclines bind to calcium, magnesium, and aluminum, which significantly
reduces their absorption. Patients should avoid dairy, antacids, and iron supplements.
,3. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a patient receiving
Gentamicin therapy?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. Serum Creatinine
C. Hemoglobin
D. Serum Potassium
Answer: B
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like Gentamicin are highly nephrotoxic. Monitoring Serum
Creatinine and BUN is essential to detect renal impairment early.
4. A patient is prescribed Rifampin for tuberculosis. What should the nurse
include in the teaching?
A. Urine, sweat, and tears may turn reddish-orange.
B. The drug can cause permanent hearing loss.
C. Avoid foods high in Vitamin K.
D. Take the medication only when symptoms are present.
Answer: A
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of bodily
fluids, which can stain contact lenses and clothing.
5. What is the primary rationale for obtaining a culture and sensitivity (C&S)
before starting antibiotic therapy?
A. To identify the specific organism and the most effective antibiotic.
B. To determine if the patient has any drug allergies.
C. To minimize the risk of a superinfection.
D. To check if the patient’s white blood cell count is elevated.
Answer: A
Rationale: A culture identifies the pathogen, and sensitivity testing determines which
antibiotics are effective against that specific organism to ensure targeted treatment.
, 6. A patient receiving Vancomycin develops flushing, hypotension, and a rash on
the upper body. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer epinephrine immediately.
B. Stop the infusion and notify the provider.
C. Slow the infusion rate.
D. Apply cold compresses to the rash.
Answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms describe ‘Red Man Syndrome,’ which is usually related to
rapid infusion of Vancomycin. Slowing the infusion rate often resolves the reaction.
7. A patient is prescribed Metronidazole for a vaginal infection. Which
instruction is critical?
A. Avoid sunlight exposure.
B. Increase intake of dairy products.
C. Take on an empty stomach.
D. Do not consume alcohol.
Answer: D
Rationale: Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction (nausea, vomiting, flushing,
tachycardia) if consumed with alcohol.
8. Which adverse effect is most closely associated with the use of
Fluoroquinolones like Ciprofloxacin?
A. Ototoxicity
B. Teeth discoloration
C. Tendon rupture
D. Bone marrow suppression
Answer: C
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones carry a black box warning for the risk of tendonitis and
tendon rupture, particularly the Achilles tendon.
|Chamberlain College
1. A nurse is preparing to administer Cefazolin to a patient. Which allergy in the
patient’s history should the nurse report to the provider before administration?
A. Sulfa drugs
B. Penicillin
C. Peanuts
D. Latex
Answer: B
Rationale: Cephalosporins like Cefazolin share a similar chemical structure with
Penicillins; therefore, cross-sensitivity may occur in patients with a history of penicillin
allergy.
2. A patient taking Tetracycline should be instructed to avoid which of the
following to prevent decreased absorption?
A. Leafy green vegetables
B. Dairy products
C. Grapefruit juice
D. High-protein meals
Answer: B
Rationale: Tetracyclines bind to calcium, magnesium, and aluminum, which significantly
reduces their absorption. Patients should avoid dairy, antacids, and iron supplements.
,3. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a patient receiving
Gentamicin therapy?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. Serum Creatinine
C. Hemoglobin
D. Serum Potassium
Answer: B
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like Gentamicin are highly nephrotoxic. Monitoring Serum
Creatinine and BUN is essential to detect renal impairment early.
4. A patient is prescribed Rifampin for tuberculosis. What should the nurse
include in the teaching?
A. Urine, sweat, and tears may turn reddish-orange.
B. The drug can cause permanent hearing loss.
C. Avoid foods high in Vitamin K.
D. Take the medication only when symptoms are present.
Answer: A
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of bodily
fluids, which can stain contact lenses and clothing.
5. What is the primary rationale for obtaining a culture and sensitivity (C&S)
before starting antibiotic therapy?
A. To identify the specific organism and the most effective antibiotic.
B. To determine if the patient has any drug allergies.
C. To minimize the risk of a superinfection.
D. To check if the patient’s white blood cell count is elevated.
Answer: A
Rationale: A culture identifies the pathogen, and sensitivity testing determines which
antibiotics are effective against that specific organism to ensure targeted treatment.
, 6. A patient receiving Vancomycin develops flushing, hypotension, and a rash on
the upper body. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer epinephrine immediately.
B. Stop the infusion and notify the provider.
C. Slow the infusion rate.
D. Apply cold compresses to the rash.
Answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms describe ‘Red Man Syndrome,’ which is usually related to
rapid infusion of Vancomycin. Slowing the infusion rate often resolves the reaction.
7. A patient is prescribed Metronidazole for a vaginal infection. Which
instruction is critical?
A. Avoid sunlight exposure.
B. Increase intake of dairy products.
C. Take on an empty stomach.
D. Do not consume alcohol.
Answer: D
Rationale: Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction (nausea, vomiting, flushing,
tachycardia) if consumed with alcohol.
8. Which adverse effect is most closely associated with the use of
Fluoroquinolones like Ciprofloxacin?
A. Ototoxicity
B. Teeth discoloration
C. Tendon rupture
D. Bone marrow suppression
Answer: C
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones carry a black box warning for the risk of tendonitis and
tendon rupture, particularly the Achilles tendon.
