NR 325 Adult Health III - Week 6 Study Guide Quiz 2026 |Chamberlain
College
1. A patient is admitted with a suspected diagnosis of Systemic Inflammatory
Response Syndrome (SIRS). Which of the following criteria would support this
diagnosis?
A. Temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F)
B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
C. Heart rate of 85 beats per minute
D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
Answer: B
Rationale: SIRS criteria include a temperature >38°C or <36°C, HR >90 bpm, RR >20 bpm
or PaCO2 <32 mmHg, and WBC >12,000/mm³ or <4,000/mm³ or >10% bands.
2. Which clinical finding is most indicative of the transition from sepsis to septic
shock?
A. Elevated white blood cell count
B. Requirement of vasopressors to maintain a MAP of 65 mmHg
C. Oliguria with urine output of 0.5 mL/kg/hr
D. Lactic acid level of 1.5 mmol/L
Answer: B
Rationale: Septic shock is defined as sepsis with persistent hypotension requiring
vasopressors to maintain MAP ≥65 mmHg and having a serum lactate level >2 mmol/L
despite adequate volume resuscitation.
,3. The nurse is caring for a patient in the compensatory stage of shock. Which
finding is expected?
A. Increased heart rate and narrowed pulse pressure
B. Severe metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia
C. Cold, clammy skin and absent bowel sounds
D. Unresponsiveness and respiratory failure
Answer: A
Rationale: In the compensatory stage, the body activates the SNS to maintain cardiac
output, leading to tachycardia and vasoconstriction (narrowed pulse pressure). Cold skin
and acidosis occur in the progressive stage.
4. A patient with a spinal cord injury at T3 presents with a blood pressure of
82/40 mmHg and a heart rate of 48 bpm. Which type of shock is suspected?
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D. Cardiogenic shock
Answer: C
Rationale: Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia due to the
loss of sympathetic tone following high spinal cord injuries.
5. Using the Parkland formula, calculate the total fluid volume needed in the
first 24 hours for a 70 kg patient with 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burns.
A. 11,200 mL
B. 5,600 mL
C. 2,800 mL
D. 14,000 mL
Answer: A
Rationale: The Parkland formula is 4 mL x kg x %TBSA. Thus, 4 x 70 x 40 = 11,200 mL.
, 6. In the emergent phase of burn care, which electrolyte imbalance is most
commonly expected?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia occurs in the emergent phase due to massive cell destruction,
which releases potassium into the extracellular fluid.
7. A patient arrives in the ER with burns to the entire right arm and the entire
anterior trunk. According to the Rule of Nines, what is the TBSA percentage?
A. 18%
B. 36%
C. 27%
D. 22.5%
Answer: C
Rationale: The entire arm is 9% and the anterior trunk is 18%. Total = 27%.
8. What is the primary goal during the acute phase of burn management?
A. Fluid resuscitation
B. Managing airway and breathing
C. Return to pre-injury function
D. Wound care and infection prevention
Answer: D
Rationale: The acute phase begins 48-72 hours after injury and focuses on wound healing,
infection prevention, and nutritional support. Fluid resuscitation is the focus of the
emergent phase.
College
1. A patient is admitted with a suspected diagnosis of Systemic Inflammatory
Response Syndrome (SIRS). Which of the following criteria would support this
diagnosis?
A. Temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F)
B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
C. Heart rate of 85 beats per minute
D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
Answer: B
Rationale: SIRS criteria include a temperature >38°C or <36°C, HR >90 bpm, RR >20 bpm
or PaCO2 <32 mmHg, and WBC >12,000/mm³ or <4,000/mm³ or >10% bands.
2. Which clinical finding is most indicative of the transition from sepsis to septic
shock?
A. Elevated white blood cell count
B. Requirement of vasopressors to maintain a MAP of 65 mmHg
C. Oliguria with urine output of 0.5 mL/kg/hr
D. Lactic acid level of 1.5 mmol/L
Answer: B
Rationale: Septic shock is defined as sepsis with persistent hypotension requiring
vasopressors to maintain MAP ≥65 mmHg and having a serum lactate level >2 mmol/L
despite adequate volume resuscitation.
,3. The nurse is caring for a patient in the compensatory stage of shock. Which
finding is expected?
A. Increased heart rate and narrowed pulse pressure
B. Severe metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia
C. Cold, clammy skin and absent bowel sounds
D. Unresponsiveness and respiratory failure
Answer: A
Rationale: In the compensatory stage, the body activates the SNS to maintain cardiac
output, leading to tachycardia and vasoconstriction (narrowed pulse pressure). Cold skin
and acidosis occur in the progressive stage.
4. A patient with a spinal cord injury at T3 presents with a blood pressure of
82/40 mmHg and a heart rate of 48 bpm. Which type of shock is suspected?
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D. Cardiogenic shock
Answer: C
Rationale: Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia due to the
loss of sympathetic tone following high spinal cord injuries.
5. Using the Parkland formula, calculate the total fluid volume needed in the
first 24 hours for a 70 kg patient with 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burns.
A. 11,200 mL
B. 5,600 mL
C. 2,800 mL
D. 14,000 mL
Answer: A
Rationale: The Parkland formula is 4 mL x kg x %TBSA. Thus, 4 x 70 x 40 = 11,200 mL.
, 6. In the emergent phase of burn care, which electrolyte imbalance is most
commonly expected?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia occurs in the emergent phase due to massive cell destruction,
which releases potassium into the extracellular fluid.
7. A patient arrives in the ER with burns to the entire right arm and the entire
anterior trunk. According to the Rule of Nines, what is the TBSA percentage?
A. 18%
B. 36%
C. 27%
D. 22.5%
Answer: C
Rationale: The entire arm is 9% and the anterior trunk is 18%. Total = 27%.
8. What is the primary goal during the acute phase of burn management?
A. Fluid resuscitation
B. Managing airway and breathing
C. Return to pre-injury function
D. Wound care and infection prevention
Answer: D
Rationale: The acute phase begins 48-72 hours after injury and focuses on wound healing,
infection prevention, and nutritional support. Fluid resuscitation is the focus of the
emergent phase.
