NR 325 Adult Health III - Week 8 Comprehensive Review 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient’s blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. What is the calculated Mean
Arterial Pressure (MAP)?
A. 70 mmHg
B. 80 mmHg
C. 85 mmHg
D. 90 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: MAP is calculated as (Systolic BP + 2 * Diastolic BP) / 3. For 100/70, it is (100 +
140) / 3 = 80 mmHg.
2. Which hemodynamic parameter is the most sensitive indicator of early fluid
volume deficit in a trauma patient?
A. Central Venous Pressure (CVP)
B. Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
C. Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR)
D. Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP)
Answer: A
Rationale: CVP measures the pressure in the right atrium and reflects preload; it is often
the first parameter to drop during hypovolemia.
,3. In the ‘Resuscitation Phase’ of burn injury, which electrolyte abnormality is
most commonly expected?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: A
Rationale: During the initial burn phase, massive cell destruction releases potassium into
the extracellular space, leading to hyperkalemia.
4. A client with a 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burn weighs 70 kg. Using
the Parkland formula (4mL/kg/%TBSA), what is the total fluid requirement for
the first 24 hours?
A. 5,600 mL
B. 2,800 mL
C. 11,200 mL
D. 8,400 mL
Answer: C
Rationale: Parkland formula: 4 mL x 70 kg x 40% = 11,200 mL.
5. During the treatment of septic shock, what is the primary goal of
administering Norepinephrine?
A. To decrease heart rate
B. To decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C. To increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
D. To promote renal vasodilation
Answer: C
Rationale: Norepinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor used to increase SVR and MAP in
distributive shock states like sepsis.
, 6. A patient on a mechanical ventilator has a high-pressure alarm sounding.
Which condition is a likely cause?
A. Biting the endotracheal tube
B. Endotracheal tube cuff leak
C. Patient disconnection
D. Extubation
Answer: A
Rationale: High-pressure alarms are triggered by resistance to airflow, such as secretions,
kinking, or the patient biting the tube.
7. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of Acute Respiratory Distress
Syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Increased lung compliance
B. Respiratory alkalosis in late stages
C. Refractory hypoxemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Refractory hypoxemia, where the PaO2 does not improve despite increasing
concentrations of oxygen, is a defining feature of ARDS.
8. When caring for a patient with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC),
which laboratory result would the nurse expect?
A. Decreased D-dimer
B. Increased Platelet count
C. Decreased Fibrinogen level
D. Shortened Prothrombin Time (PT)
Answer: C
Rationale: DIC involves the depletion of clotting factors and platelets, leading to low
fibrinogen levels and high D-dimer levels.
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient’s blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. What is the calculated Mean
Arterial Pressure (MAP)?
A. 70 mmHg
B. 80 mmHg
C. 85 mmHg
D. 90 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: MAP is calculated as (Systolic BP + 2 * Diastolic BP) / 3. For 100/70, it is (100 +
140) / 3 = 80 mmHg.
2. Which hemodynamic parameter is the most sensitive indicator of early fluid
volume deficit in a trauma patient?
A. Central Venous Pressure (CVP)
B. Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
C. Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR)
D. Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP)
Answer: A
Rationale: CVP measures the pressure in the right atrium and reflects preload; it is often
the first parameter to drop during hypovolemia.
,3. In the ‘Resuscitation Phase’ of burn injury, which electrolyte abnormality is
most commonly expected?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: A
Rationale: During the initial burn phase, massive cell destruction releases potassium into
the extracellular space, leading to hyperkalemia.
4. A client with a 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burn weighs 70 kg. Using
the Parkland formula (4mL/kg/%TBSA), what is the total fluid requirement for
the first 24 hours?
A. 5,600 mL
B. 2,800 mL
C. 11,200 mL
D. 8,400 mL
Answer: C
Rationale: Parkland formula: 4 mL x 70 kg x 40% = 11,200 mL.
5. During the treatment of septic shock, what is the primary goal of
administering Norepinephrine?
A. To decrease heart rate
B. To decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C. To increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
D. To promote renal vasodilation
Answer: C
Rationale: Norepinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor used to increase SVR and MAP in
distributive shock states like sepsis.
, 6. A patient on a mechanical ventilator has a high-pressure alarm sounding.
Which condition is a likely cause?
A. Biting the endotracheal tube
B. Endotracheal tube cuff leak
C. Patient disconnection
D. Extubation
Answer: A
Rationale: High-pressure alarms are triggered by resistance to airflow, such as secretions,
kinking, or the patient biting the tube.
7. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of Acute Respiratory Distress
Syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Increased lung compliance
B. Respiratory alkalosis in late stages
C. Refractory hypoxemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Refractory hypoxemia, where the PaO2 does not improve despite increasing
concentrations of oxygen, is a defining feature of ARDS.
8. When caring for a patient with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC),
which laboratory result would the nurse expect?
A. Decreased D-dimer
B. Increased Platelet count
C. Decreased Fibrinogen level
D. Shortened Prothrombin Time (PT)
Answer: C
Rationale: DIC involves the depletion of clotting factors and platelets, leading to low
fibrinogen levels and high D-dimer levels.
