NR 325 Adult Health III Exam 2 Practice Questions 2026 |Chamberlain
College
1. A patient with severe burns is in the resuscitative phase. Which assessment
finding indicates adequate fluid resuscitation?
A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
B. Urine output of 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr
C. Heart rate of 120 bpm
D. Weight gain of 2 lbs in 24 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: In burn resuscitation, urine output is the most reliable indicator of adequate
fluid replacement, typically targeted at 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr for adults.
2. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of Diabetic Ketoacidosis
(DKA) compared to Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS)?
A. Blood glucose > 600 mg/dL
B. Altered mental status
C. Severe dehydration
D. Kussmaul’s respirations
Answer: D
Rationale: Kussmaul’s respirations (deep, rapid breathing) occur in DKA as the body
attempts to blow off CO2 to compensate for metabolic acidosis; HHS does not typically
involve acidosis.
,3. A patient is admitted with a C4 spinal cord injury. What is the priority nursing
assessment?
A. Blood pressure stability
B. Respiratory effort and rate
C. Bladder distension
D. Motor strength in lower extremities
Answer: B
Rationale: Injuries at or above C4 affect the phrenic nerve, which controls the diaphragm,
leading to respiratory failure or insufficiency.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient on a mechanical ventilator. The high-pressure
alarm sounds. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Check for a leak in the circuit
B. Increase the oxygen concentration
C. Assess for a kink in the tubing or the patient biting the tube
D. Call the respiratory therapist to change the settings
Answer: C
Rationale: High-pressure alarms are triggered by increased resistance, such as secretions,
kinks, or the patient biting the ET tube. Low-pressure alarms indicate leaks.
5. In a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), what is the
primary pathophysiological change?
A. Increased pulmonary compliance
B. Decreased capillary permeability
C. Alveolar collapse due to surfactant loss
D. Bronchospasm in the large airways
Answer: C
, Rationale: ARDS involves damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to non-
cardiogenic pulmonary edema, loss of surfactant, and widespread alveolar collapse
(atelectasis).
6. A patient exhibits Beck’s Triad (muffled heart sounds, JVD, and hypotension).
Which condition is suspected?
A. Cardiac Tamponade
B. Pulmonary Embolism
C. Tension Pneumothorax
D. Septic Shock
Answer: A
Rationale: Beck’s Triad is the classic clinical sign of cardiac tamponade, caused by fluid
accumulation in the pericardial sac compressing the heart.
7. What is the primary goal of using Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) in a
patient with ARDS?
A. To keep alveoli open and improve oxygenation
B. To prevent barotrauma
C. To decrease the work of breathing
D. To decrease cardiac output
Answer: A
Rationale: PEEP maintains pressure in the lungs at the end of expiration to prevent
alveolar collapse and improve gas exchange across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
College
1. A patient with severe burns is in the resuscitative phase. Which assessment
finding indicates adequate fluid resuscitation?
A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
B. Urine output of 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr
C. Heart rate of 120 bpm
D. Weight gain of 2 lbs in 24 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: In burn resuscitation, urine output is the most reliable indicator of adequate
fluid replacement, typically targeted at 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr for adults.
2. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of Diabetic Ketoacidosis
(DKA) compared to Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS)?
A. Blood glucose > 600 mg/dL
B. Altered mental status
C. Severe dehydration
D. Kussmaul’s respirations
Answer: D
Rationale: Kussmaul’s respirations (deep, rapid breathing) occur in DKA as the body
attempts to blow off CO2 to compensate for metabolic acidosis; HHS does not typically
involve acidosis.
,3. A patient is admitted with a C4 spinal cord injury. What is the priority nursing
assessment?
A. Blood pressure stability
B. Respiratory effort and rate
C. Bladder distension
D. Motor strength in lower extremities
Answer: B
Rationale: Injuries at or above C4 affect the phrenic nerve, which controls the diaphragm,
leading to respiratory failure or insufficiency.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient on a mechanical ventilator. The high-pressure
alarm sounds. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Check for a leak in the circuit
B. Increase the oxygen concentration
C. Assess for a kink in the tubing or the patient biting the tube
D. Call the respiratory therapist to change the settings
Answer: C
Rationale: High-pressure alarms are triggered by increased resistance, such as secretions,
kinks, or the patient biting the ET tube. Low-pressure alarms indicate leaks.
5. In a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), what is the
primary pathophysiological change?
A. Increased pulmonary compliance
B. Decreased capillary permeability
C. Alveolar collapse due to surfactant loss
D. Bronchospasm in the large airways
Answer: C
, Rationale: ARDS involves damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to non-
cardiogenic pulmonary edema, loss of surfactant, and widespread alveolar collapse
(atelectasis).
6. A patient exhibits Beck’s Triad (muffled heart sounds, JVD, and hypotension).
Which condition is suspected?
A. Cardiac Tamponade
B. Pulmonary Embolism
C. Tension Pneumothorax
D. Septic Shock
Answer: A
Rationale: Beck’s Triad is the classic clinical sign of cardiac tamponade, caused by fluid
accumulation in the pericardial sac compressing the heart.
7. What is the primary goal of using Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) in a
patient with ARDS?
A. To keep alveoli open and improve oxygenation
B. To prevent barotrauma
C. To decrease the work of breathing
D. To decrease cardiac output
Answer: A
Rationale: PEEP maintains pressure in the lungs at the end of expiration to prevent
alveolar collapse and improve gas exchange across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
