NR 325 Adult Health III Exam 3 Practice Quiz 2026 |Chamberlain
College
1. A patient with severe burns is in the emergent phase of care. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most commonly expected during this stage?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: During the emergent phase of burns, cell destruction releases potassium into
the extracellular fluid, leading to hyperkalemia.
2. Using the Parkland formula, calculate the total fluid volume needed in the
first 24 hours for a 75 kg patient with a 40% TBSA burn.
A. 6,000 mL
B. 9,000 mL
C. 12,000 mL
D. 15,000 mL
Answer: C
Rationale: Parkland formula: 4 mL x kg x %TBSA. Here, 4 x 75 x 40 = 12,000 mL.
,3. In a patient with neurogenic shock, which clinical finding should the nurse
prioritize?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Tachycardia
D. Hyperthermia
Answer: A
Rationale: Neurogenic shock is characterized by the loss of sympathetic tone, leading to
the triad of hypotension, bradycardia, and poikilothermia.
4. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of the compensatory stage of
shock?
A. Cold, clammy skin
B. Anuria
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Narrowed pulse pressure
Answer: D
Rationale: In the compensatory stage, the body attempts to maintain CO. A narrowed pulse
pressure is an early indicator of decreased stroke volume.
5. A patient is suspected of having Septic Shock. Which lab value is most
indicative of tissue hypoperfusion?
A. Increased Serum Lactate
B. Decreased WBC count
C. Increased Hemoglobin
D. Decreased Creatinine
Answer: A
Rationale: Serum lactate levels > 2 mmol/L indicate anaerobic metabolism due to tissue
hypoperfusion, common in sepsis.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of an Escharotomy in a patient with
circumferential full-thickness burns to an extremity?
A. To prevent infection
B. To improve cosmetic appearance
C. To debride dead tissue
D. To restore distal circulation
Answer: D
Rationale: Circumferential burns can act like a tourniquet. An escharotomy is performed
to relieve pressure and restore circulation to the limb.
7. During the acute phase of burn care, which nutritional intervention is most
appropriate?
A. Low-calorie diet
B. Fluid restriction
C. High-protein, high-calorie diet
D. NPO status for 48 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: Burn patients are in a hypermetabolic state and require high protein and
calories to support wound healing and prevent catabolism.
8. A patient in cardiogenic shock is prescribed Dobutamine. What is the
intended effect of this medication?
A. To decrease heart rate
B. To increase myocardial contractility
C. To cause peripheral vasoconstriction
D. To decrease urine output
Answer: B
Rationale: Dobutamine is a positive inotrope that increases contractility and cardiac
output without significantly increasing heart rate.
College
1. A patient with severe burns is in the emergent phase of care. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most commonly expected during this stage?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: During the emergent phase of burns, cell destruction releases potassium into
the extracellular fluid, leading to hyperkalemia.
2. Using the Parkland formula, calculate the total fluid volume needed in the
first 24 hours for a 75 kg patient with a 40% TBSA burn.
A. 6,000 mL
B. 9,000 mL
C. 12,000 mL
D. 15,000 mL
Answer: C
Rationale: Parkland formula: 4 mL x kg x %TBSA. Here, 4 x 75 x 40 = 12,000 mL.
,3. In a patient with neurogenic shock, which clinical finding should the nurse
prioritize?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Tachycardia
D. Hyperthermia
Answer: A
Rationale: Neurogenic shock is characterized by the loss of sympathetic tone, leading to
the triad of hypotension, bradycardia, and poikilothermia.
4. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of the compensatory stage of
shock?
A. Cold, clammy skin
B. Anuria
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Narrowed pulse pressure
Answer: D
Rationale: In the compensatory stage, the body attempts to maintain CO. A narrowed pulse
pressure is an early indicator of decreased stroke volume.
5. A patient is suspected of having Septic Shock. Which lab value is most
indicative of tissue hypoperfusion?
A. Increased Serum Lactate
B. Decreased WBC count
C. Increased Hemoglobin
D. Decreased Creatinine
Answer: A
Rationale: Serum lactate levels > 2 mmol/L indicate anaerobic metabolism due to tissue
hypoperfusion, common in sepsis.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of an Escharotomy in a patient with
circumferential full-thickness burns to an extremity?
A. To prevent infection
B. To improve cosmetic appearance
C. To debride dead tissue
D. To restore distal circulation
Answer: D
Rationale: Circumferential burns can act like a tourniquet. An escharotomy is performed
to relieve pressure and restore circulation to the limb.
7. During the acute phase of burn care, which nutritional intervention is most
appropriate?
A. Low-calorie diet
B. Fluid restriction
C. High-protein, high-calorie diet
D. NPO status for 48 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: Burn patients are in a hypermetabolic state and require high protein and
calories to support wound healing and prevent catabolism.
8. A patient in cardiogenic shock is prescribed Dobutamine. What is the
intended effect of this medication?
A. To decrease heart rate
B. To increase myocardial contractility
C. To cause peripheral vasoconstriction
D. To decrease urine output
Answer: B
Rationale: Dobutamine is a positive inotrope that increases contractility and cardiac
output without significantly increasing heart rate.
