NR 325 Adult Health III Exam 6 Comprehensive Quiz 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient in the ICU has a Central Venous Pressure (CVP) of 1 mmHg. Which of
the following is the most likely interpretation?
A. Fluid volume excess
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Fluid volume deficit
D. Normal hemodynamic status
Answer: C
Rationale: Normal CVP ranges from 2 to 8 mmHg. A value of 1 mmHg indicates low
preload, commonly caused by dehydration or hemorrhage.
2. When using the Parkland Formula for fluid resuscitation in a burn patient,
how much of the total calculated volume should be administered in the first 8
hours?
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: A
Rationale: The Parkland Formula calculates fluid for 24 hours; half (50%) of that volume is
administered in the first 8 hours following the burn injury.
,3. A client is exhibiting ventricular fibrillation on the cardiac monitor. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Initiate CPR and prepare for defibrillation
B. Perform synchronized cardioversion
C. Administer Epinephrine IV
D. Check for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds
Answer: A
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a pulseless rhythm requiring immediate CPR and
unsynchronized defibrillation; checking a pulse should take no more than 10 seconds.
4. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of the ‘warm’ early
stage of septic shock?
A. Cool, clammy skin
B. High cardiac output and low systemic vascular resistance
C. Decreased cardiac output
D. Severe bradycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: In early septic shock (hyperdynamic phase), vasodilation leads to low SVR and
a compensatory increase in cardiac output, resulting in warm, flushed skin.
5. A patient with ARDS is placed on mechanical ventilation with High PEEP.
What is a primary complication the nurse should monitor for?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Pneumothorax
D. Decreased intracranial pressure
Answer: C
Rationale: High levels of Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) can cause barotrauma,
leading to a pneumothorax or decreased venous return/cardiac output.
, 6. The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
Which position is most appropriate?
A. Semi-Fowler’s with head midline
B. Supine with legs elevated
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Prone with head turned to the side
Answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees (Semi-Fowler’s) and keeping the
head midline promotes venous drainage and helps lower ICP.
7. Which laboratory value is the most sensitive indicator of acute kidney injury
(AKI)?
A. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
B. Serum Creatinine
C. Urine Specific Gravity
D. Serum Potassium
Answer: B
Rationale: While BUN can be affected by diet and hydration, serum creatinine is a more
specific and sensitive indicator of glomerular filtration and kidney function.
8. A patient is diagnosed with Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS).
Which organ system usually fails first in this condition?
A. Renal system
B. Hepatic system
C. Gastrointestinal system
D. Respiratory system
Answer: D
Rationale: In MODS, the respiratory system is typically the first to show signs of failure,
often manifesting as Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS).
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient in the ICU has a Central Venous Pressure (CVP) of 1 mmHg. Which of
the following is the most likely interpretation?
A. Fluid volume excess
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Fluid volume deficit
D. Normal hemodynamic status
Answer: C
Rationale: Normal CVP ranges from 2 to 8 mmHg. A value of 1 mmHg indicates low
preload, commonly caused by dehydration or hemorrhage.
2. When using the Parkland Formula for fluid resuscitation in a burn patient,
how much of the total calculated volume should be administered in the first 8
hours?
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: A
Rationale: The Parkland Formula calculates fluid for 24 hours; half (50%) of that volume is
administered in the first 8 hours following the burn injury.
,3. A client is exhibiting ventricular fibrillation on the cardiac monitor. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Initiate CPR and prepare for defibrillation
B. Perform synchronized cardioversion
C. Administer Epinephrine IV
D. Check for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds
Answer: A
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a pulseless rhythm requiring immediate CPR and
unsynchronized defibrillation; checking a pulse should take no more than 10 seconds.
4. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of the ‘warm’ early
stage of septic shock?
A. Cool, clammy skin
B. High cardiac output and low systemic vascular resistance
C. Decreased cardiac output
D. Severe bradycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: In early septic shock (hyperdynamic phase), vasodilation leads to low SVR and
a compensatory increase in cardiac output, resulting in warm, flushed skin.
5. A patient with ARDS is placed on mechanical ventilation with High PEEP.
What is a primary complication the nurse should monitor for?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Pneumothorax
D. Decreased intracranial pressure
Answer: C
Rationale: High levels of Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) can cause barotrauma,
leading to a pneumothorax or decreased venous return/cardiac output.
, 6. The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
Which position is most appropriate?
A. Semi-Fowler’s with head midline
B. Supine with legs elevated
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Prone with head turned to the side
Answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees (Semi-Fowler’s) and keeping the
head midline promotes venous drainage and helps lower ICP.
7. Which laboratory value is the most sensitive indicator of acute kidney injury
(AKI)?
A. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
B. Serum Creatinine
C. Urine Specific Gravity
D. Serum Potassium
Answer: B
Rationale: While BUN can be affected by diet and hydration, serum creatinine is a more
specific and sensitive indicator of glomerular filtration and kidney function.
8. A patient is diagnosed with Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS).
Which organ system usually fails first in this condition?
A. Renal system
B. Hepatic system
C. Gastrointestinal system
D. Respiratory system
Answer: D
Rationale: In MODS, the respiratory system is typically the first to show signs of failure,
often manifesting as Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS).
