NR 325 Adult Health III Exam 7 Comprehensive Study Guide 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient in the early stage of septic shock is most likely to exhibit which
clinical manifestation?
A. Bradycardia and cool, clammy skin
B. Tachycardia and warm, flushed skin
C. Hypotension and decreased respiratory rate
D. Anuria and peripheral edema
Answer: B
Rationale: The early stage of septic shock, or warm shock, is characterized by a high
cardiac output and vasodilation, resulting in tachycardia and warm, flushed skin.
2. Using the Parkland formula (4mL x kg x %TBSA), calculate the total fluid
resuscitation for a 70kg patient with 40% TBSA burns for the first 24 hours.
A. 5,600 mL
B. 11,200 mL
C. 8,400 mL
D. 14,000 mL
Answer: B
Rationale: 4mL x 70kg x 40 = 11,200 mL. Half of this is administered in the first 8 hours,
and the remainder over the next 16 hours.
,3. In a mass casualty incident, which patient should be assigned a red triage tag?
A. A patient with a minor arm laceration
B. A patient with a tension pneumothorax and respiratory distress
C. A patient who is not breathing after airway opening
D. A patient with a stable closed fracture of the tibia
Answer: B
Rationale: Red tags are for immediate priority patients who have life-threatening injuries
that are treatable, such as airway obstruction or tension pneumothorax.
4. Which type of shock is characterized by a loss of sympathetic tone, resulting
in bradycardia and hypotension?
A. Septic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Anaphylactic shock
Answer: B
Rationale: Neurogenic shock occurs due to spinal cord injury or anesthesia, leading to
massive vasodilation and loss of sympathetic input to the heart, causing bradycardia.
5. Which laboratory value is a primary indicator of disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC)?
A. Increased fibrinogen and increased platelets
B. Decreased PT and PTT
C. Increased D-dimer and decreased platelets
D. Decreased BUN and creatinine
Answer: C
Rationale: DIC involves systemic activation of coagulation, leading to consumption of
platelets and clotting factors, and elevated D-dimer due to fibrinolysis.
, 6. Which assessment is required to confirm brain death in a patient with a
catastrophic brain injury?
A. Presence of a positive Babinski reflex
B. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 5
C. Absence of brainstem reflexes and a positive apnea test
D. Responsiveness only to painful stimuli
Answer: C
Rationale: Brain death is confirmed by the irreversible loss of all brain functions, including
the brainstem, typically verified by apnea testing and clinical reflex tests.
7. A patient with 30% TBSA burns is 4 hours post-injury. Which intravenous fluid
is preferred for resuscitation?
A. 0.45% Normal Saline
B. Lactated Ringer’s
C. D5W
D. 3% Hypertonic Saline
Answer: B
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s is the fluid of choice for burn resuscitation because its
composition most closely resembles extracellular fluid and helps buffer metabolic acidosis.
8. The nurse is caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock. Which medication is
most likely to be ordered to improve contractility?
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Furosemide
C. Atropine
D. Dobutamine
Answer: D
Rationale: Dobutamine is a positive inotrope that increases myocardial contractility and
cardiac output, which is the primary goal in cardiogenic shock.
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient in the early stage of septic shock is most likely to exhibit which
clinical manifestation?
A. Bradycardia and cool, clammy skin
B. Tachycardia and warm, flushed skin
C. Hypotension and decreased respiratory rate
D. Anuria and peripheral edema
Answer: B
Rationale: The early stage of septic shock, or warm shock, is characterized by a high
cardiac output and vasodilation, resulting in tachycardia and warm, flushed skin.
2. Using the Parkland formula (4mL x kg x %TBSA), calculate the total fluid
resuscitation for a 70kg patient with 40% TBSA burns for the first 24 hours.
A. 5,600 mL
B. 11,200 mL
C. 8,400 mL
D. 14,000 mL
Answer: B
Rationale: 4mL x 70kg x 40 = 11,200 mL. Half of this is administered in the first 8 hours,
and the remainder over the next 16 hours.
,3. In a mass casualty incident, which patient should be assigned a red triage tag?
A. A patient with a minor arm laceration
B. A patient with a tension pneumothorax and respiratory distress
C. A patient who is not breathing after airway opening
D. A patient with a stable closed fracture of the tibia
Answer: B
Rationale: Red tags are for immediate priority patients who have life-threatening injuries
that are treatable, such as airway obstruction or tension pneumothorax.
4. Which type of shock is characterized by a loss of sympathetic tone, resulting
in bradycardia and hypotension?
A. Septic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Anaphylactic shock
Answer: B
Rationale: Neurogenic shock occurs due to spinal cord injury or anesthesia, leading to
massive vasodilation and loss of sympathetic input to the heart, causing bradycardia.
5. Which laboratory value is a primary indicator of disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC)?
A. Increased fibrinogen and increased platelets
B. Decreased PT and PTT
C. Increased D-dimer and decreased platelets
D. Decreased BUN and creatinine
Answer: C
Rationale: DIC involves systemic activation of coagulation, leading to consumption of
platelets and clotting factors, and elevated D-dimer due to fibrinolysis.
, 6. Which assessment is required to confirm brain death in a patient with a
catastrophic brain injury?
A. Presence of a positive Babinski reflex
B. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 5
C. Absence of brainstem reflexes and a positive apnea test
D. Responsiveness only to painful stimuli
Answer: C
Rationale: Brain death is confirmed by the irreversible loss of all brain functions, including
the brainstem, typically verified by apnea testing and clinical reflex tests.
7. A patient with 30% TBSA burns is 4 hours post-injury. Which intravenous fluid
is preferred for resuscitation?
A. 0.45% Normal Saline
B. Lactated Ringer’s
C. D5W
D. 3% Hypertonic Saline
Answer: B
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s is the fluid of choice for burn resuscitation because its
composition most closely resembles extracellular fluid and helps buffer metabolic acidosis.
8. The nurse is caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock. Which medication is
most likely to be ordered to improve contractility?
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Furosemide
C. Atropine
D. Dobutamine
Answer: D
Rationale: Dobutamine is a positive inotrope that increases myocardial contractility and
cardiac output, which is the primary goal in cardiogenic shock.
