NR 325 Adult Health III Exam 8 Practice Questions 2026 |Chamberlain
College
1. A patient in the ICU is being treated for Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
(ARDS). Which ventilator setting is specifically adjusted to help keep the alveoli
open at the end of expiration?
A. Tidal Volume (VT)
B. Fraction of Inspired Oxygen (FiO2)
C. Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP)
D. Inspiratory-to-Expiratory (I:E) Ratio
Answer: C
Rationale: PEEP provides positive pressure at the end of expiration to prevent alveolar
collapse and improve oxygenation in patients with ARDS.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury. According to the
Parkland Formula, what is the fluid of choice for the first 24 hours of
resuscitation?
A. Lactated Ringer’s
B. 0.9% Normal Saline
C. 5% Dextrose in Water
D. Albumin 5%
Answer: A
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s is the preferred isotonic crystalloid for burn resuscitation
because its composition most closely matches extracellular fluid.
,3. The nurse observes a patient’s cardiac monitor and notes a saw-tooth pattern
with a regular atrial rate. Which rhythm is the nurse observing?
A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Atrial Flutter
C. Ventricular Tachycardia
D. Premature Atrial Contractions
Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial flutter is characterized by a ‘saw-tooth’ P-wave pattern on the ECG.
4. A patient with liver cirrhosis presents with increased confusion and asterixis.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to lower ammonia
levels?
A. Spironolactone
B. Propranolol
C. Furosemide
D. Lactulose
Answer: D
Rationale: Lactulose promotes the excretion of ammonia through the stool, reducing
hepatic encephalopathy symptoms.
5. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of neurogenic shock following a
spinal cord injury?
A. Tachycardia and hypertension
B. Tachycardia and cold, clammy skin
C. Bradycardia and hypotension
D. Hypertension and diaphoresis
Answer: C
Rationale: Neurogenic shock is characterized by the loss of sympathetic tone, leading to
bradycardia and hypotension.
, 6. A nurse is monitoring a patient with a head injury. Which of the following
findings indicates Cushing’s Triad, a late sign of increased intracranial pressure
(ICP)?
A. Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea
B. Tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure, and bradypnea
C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations
D. Bradycardia, widening pulse pressure, and irregular respirations
Answer: D
Rationale: Cushing’s Triad consists of bradycardia, hypertension with a widening pulse
pressure, and irregular/altered respirations.
7. What is the primary goal of the 1-hour sepsis bundle for a patient suspected
of having septic shock?
A. To begin surgical debridement of the infection site
B. To prepare the patient for immediate dialysis
C. To initiate antibiotic therapy and fluid resuscitation rapidly
D. To achieve a Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) of at least 90 mmHg
Answer: C
Rationale: The 1-hour bundle focuses on early lactate levels, blood cultures, broad-
spectrum antibiotics, and fluid resuscitation to improve survival rates.
8. A patient with a Chest Tube has continuous bubbling in the water-seal
chamber. What does this finding indicate?
A. Normal functioning of the chest tube
B. A leak in the system or the patient’s pleural space
C. The lung has fully re-expanded
D. The suction pressure is too high
Answer: B
College
1. A patient in the ICU is being treated for Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
(ARDS). Which ventilator setting is specifically adjusted to help keep the alveoli
open at the end of expiration?
A. Tidal Volume (VT)
B. Fraction of Inspired Oxygen (FiO2)
C. Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP)
D. Inspiratory-to-Expiratory (I:E) Ratio
Answer: C
Rationale: PEEP provides positive pressure at the end of expiration to prevent alveolar
collapse and improve oxygenation in patients with ARDS.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury. According to the
Parkland Formula, what is the fluid of choice for the first 24 hours of
resuscitation?
A. Lactated Ringer’s
B. 0.9% Normal Saline
C. 5% Dextrose in Water
D. Albumin 5%
Answer: A
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s is the preferred isotonic crystalloid for burn resuscitation
because its composition most closely matches extracellular fluid.
,3. The nurse observes a patient’s cardiac monitor and notes a saw-tooth pattern
with a regular atrial rate. Which rhythm is the nurse observing?
A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Atrial Flutter
C. Ventricular Tachycardia
D. Premature Atrial Contractions
Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial flutter is characterized by a ‘saw-tooth’ P-wave pattern on the ECG.
4. A patient with liver cirrhosis presents with increased confusion and asterixis.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to lower ammonia
levels?
A. Spironolactone
B. Propranolol
C. Furosemide
D. Lactulose
Answer: D
Rationale: Lactulose promotes the excretion of ammonia through the stool, reducing
hepatic encephalopathy symptoms.
5. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of neurogenic shock following a
spinal cord injury?
A. Tachycardia and hypertension
B. Tachycardia and cold, clammy skin
C. Bradycardia and hypotension
D. Hypertension and diaphoresis
Answer: C
Rationale: Neurogenic shock is characterized by the loss of sympathetic tone, leading to
bradycardia and hypotension.
, 6. A nurse is monitoring a patient with a head injury. Which of the following
findings indicates Cushing’s Triad, a late sign of increased intracranial pressure
(ICP)?
A. Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea
B. Tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure, and bradypnea
C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations
D. Bradycardia, widening pulse pressure, and irregular respirations
Answer: D
Rationale: Cushing’s Triad consists of bradycardia, hypertension with a widening pulse
pressure, and irregular/altered respirations.
7. What is the primary goal of the 1-hour sepsis bundle for a patient suspected
of having septic shock?
A. To begin surgical debridement of the infection site
B. To prepare the patient for immediate dialysis
C. To initiate antibiotic therapy and fluid resuscitation rapidly
D. To achieve a Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) of at least 90 mmHg
Answer: C
Rationale: The 1-hour bundle focuses on early lactate levels, blood cultures, broad-
spectrum antibiotics, and fluid resuscitation to improve survival rates.
8. A patient with a Chest Tube has continuous bubbling in the water-seal
chamber. What does this finding indicate?
A. Normal functioning of the chest tube
B. A leak in the system or the patient’s pleural space
C. The lung has fully re-expanded
D. The suction pressure is too high
Answer: B
