NR 325 Adult Health III Exam 9 Practice 2026 |Chamberlain College
1. A patient in the ICU has a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What is the
calculated Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?
A. 70 mmHg
B. 60 mmHg
C. 75 mmHg
D. 80 mmHg
Answer: A
Rationale: MAP is calculated as (Systolic BP + 2 * Diastolic BP) / 3. Here, (90 + 120) / 3 =
70 mmHg.
2. Which clinical finding is part of Cushing’s Triad, indicating increased
intracranial pressure?
A. Tachycardia
B. Widening pulse pressure
C. Hypotension
D. Tachypnea
Answer: B
Rationale: Cushing’s Triad consists of bradycardia, irregular respirations, and a widening
pulse pressure (increased systolic BP).
,3. What is the primary goal of PEEP (Positive End-Expiratory Pressure) in a
patient with ARDS?
A. To decrease cardiac output
B. To decrease intracranial pressure
C. To prevent alveolar collapse
D. To increase dead space
Answer: C
Rationale: PEEP maintains pressure in the lungs at the end of expiration to keep alveoli
open, improving oxygenation in ARDS.
4. A patient with a traumatic brain injury has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score
of 7. How is this classified?
A. Mild brain injury
B. Moderate brain injury
C. Severe brain injury
D. Brain death
Answer: C
Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or less is generally categorized as a severe brain injury.
5. Which rhythm is considered a ‘shockable’ rhythm during cardiac arrest?
A. Asystole
B. Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
C. Ventricular Fibrillation
D. Sinus Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia are shockable
rhythms; asystole and PEA are not.
, 6. In the emergent phase of a burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is most
commonly expected?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Cellular destruction during burns releases potassium into the extracellular
fluid, leading to hyperkalemia.
7. A patient is diagnosed with Septic Shock. Which intervention should the
nurse prioritize first?
A. Administering vasopressors
B. Starting IV fluid resuscitation
C. Obtaining blood cultures
D. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics
Answer: B
Rationale: Initial management of septic shock focuses on volume expansion with IV fluids
before vasopressors or even antibiotics (though cultures and antibiotics follow quickly).
8. What is the hallmark sign of ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome)?
A. Hypercapnia
B. Refractory hypoxemia
C. Productive cough
D. Wheezing
Answer: B
Rationale: Refractory hypoxemia is a condition where oxygen levels remain low despite
high concentrations of supplemental oxygen.
1. A patient in the ICU has a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What is the
calculated Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?
A. 70 mmHg
B. 60 mmHg
C. 75 mmHg
D. 80 mmHg
Answer: A
Rationale: MAP is calculated as (Systolic BP + 2 * Diastolic BP) / 3. Here, (90 + 120) / 3 =
70 mmHg.
2. Which clinical finding is part of Cushing’s Triad, indicating increased
intracranial pressure?
A. Tachycardia
B. Widening pulse pressure
C. Hypotension
D. Tachypnea
Answer: B
Rationale: Cushing’s Triad consists of bradycardia, irregular respirations, and a widening
pulse pressure (increased systolic BP).
,3. What is the primary goal of PEEP (Positive End-Expiratory Pressure) in a
patient with ARDS?
A. To decrease cardiac output
B. To decrease intracranial pressure
C. To prevent alveolar collapse
D. To increase dead space
Answer: C
Rationale: PEEP maintains pressure in the lungs at the end of expiration to keep alveoli
open, improving oxygenation in ARDS.
4. A patient with a traumatic brain injury has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score
of 7. How is this classified?
A. Mild brain injury
B. Moderate brain injury
C. Severe brain injury
D. Brain death
Answer: C
Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or less is generally categorized as a severe brain injury.
5. Which rhythm is considered a ‘shockable’ rhythm during cardiac arrest?
A. Asystole
B. Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
C. Ventricular Fibrillation
D. Sinus Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia are shockable
rhythms; asystole and PEA are not.
, 6. In the emergent phase of a burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is most
commonly expected?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Cellular destruction during burns releases potassium into the extracellular
fluid, leading to hyperkalemia.
7. A patient is diagnosed with Septic Shock. Which intervention should the
nurse prioritize first?
A. Administering vasopressors
B. Starting IV fluid resuscitation
C. Obtaining blood cultures
D. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics
Answer: B
Rationale: Initial management of septic shock focuses on volume expansion with IV fluids
before vasopressors or even antibiotics (though cultures and antibiotics follow quickly).
8. What is the hallmark sign of ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome)?
A. Hypercapnia
B. Refractory hypoxemia
C. Productive cough
D. Wheezing
Answer: B
Rationale: Refractory hypoxemia is a condition where oxygen levels remain low despite
high concentrations of supplemental oxygen.
