NR 325 Adult Health III Final Exam Practice Questions 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient in septic shock is not responding to fluid resuscitation. Which
medication should the nurse anticipate administering first to maintain a Mean
Arterial Pressure (MAP) of at least 65 mmHg?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Dopamine
C. Dobutamine
D. Epinephrine
Answer: A
Rationale: Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock when fluid
resuscitation fails to achieve hemodynamic stability.
2. When assessing a patient with a high-pressure ventilator alarm, which of the
following is a potential cause?
A. A leak in the ventilator circuit
B. Cuff leak in the ET tube
C. Patient biting the ET tube
D. Extubation
Answer: C
Rationale: High-pressure alarms are triggered by resistance, such as the patient biting the
tube, secretions, or kinking of the circuit. Leaks cause low-pressure alarms.
,3. Using the Parkland Formula, calculate the total fluid required in the first 24
hours for a 70 kg patient with 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burns.
A. 5,600 mL
B. 8,400 mL
C. 14,000 mL
D. 11,200 mL
Answer: D
Rationale: Parkland Formula: 4 mL x kg x %TBSA. Calculation: 4 x 70 x 40 = 11,200 mL.
4. A nurse observes the patient’s heart rate monitor and sees a sawtooth
pattern. Which rhythm is being displayed?
A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Atrial Flutter
C. Ventricular Tachycardia
D. Sinus Bradycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial Flutter is characterized by ‘sawtooth’ shaped P-waves (F-waves).
5. A patient with a head injury has a Glascow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7. How
should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Minor brain injury
B. Moderate brain injury
C. No brain injury
D. Severe brain injury
Answer: D
Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury and typically requires
intubation for airway protection.
, 6. Which clinical manifestation is indicative of the ‘Cold Phase’ of Septic Shock?
A. Mottled, cool extremities
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Warm, flushed skin
D. Tachycardia with normal blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: The late phase (cold phase) of septic shock is characterized by hypovolemia,
decreased cardiac output, and cool, mottled skin.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient on a mechanical ventilator. The ABG results are:
pH 7.25, PaCO2 55, HCO3 24. What is the interpretation?
A. Respiratory Alkalosis
B. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: A low pH (<7.35) and elevated PaCO2 (>45) indicate respiratory acidosis.
8. What is the primary goal of PEEP (Positive End-Expiratory Pressure) in a
patient with ARDS?
A. To prevent barotrauma
B. To decrease the work of breathing
C. To increase the respiratory rate
D. To keep the alveoli open at the end of expiration
Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP prevents alveolar collapse at the end of expiration, improving
oxygenation and functional residual capacity.
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient in septic shock is not responding to fluid resuscitation. Which
medication should the nurse anticipate administering first to maintain a Mean
Arterial Pressure (MAP) of at least 65 mmHg?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Dopamine
C. Dobutamine
D. Epinephrine
Answer: A
Rationale: Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock when fluid
resuscitation fails to achieve hemodynamic stability.
2. When assessing a patient with a high-pressure ventilator alarm, which of the
following is a potential cause?
A. A leak in the ventilator circuit
B. Cuff leak in the ET tube
C. Patient biting the ET tube
D. Extubation
Answer: C
Rationale: High-pressure alarms are triggered by resistance, such as the patient biting the
tube, secretions, or kinking of the circuit. Leaks cause low-pressure alarms.
,3. Using the Parkland Formula, calculate the total fluid required in the first 24
hours for a 70 kg patient with 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burns.
A. 5,600 mL
B. 8,400 mL
C. 14,000 mL
D. 11,200 mL
Answer: D
Rationale: Parkland Formula: 4 mL x kg x %TBSA. Calculation: 4 x 70 x 40 = 11,200 mL.
4. A nurse observes the patient’s heart rate monitor and sees a sawtooth
pattern. Which rhythm is being displayed?
A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Atrial Flutter
C. Ventricular Tachycardia
D. Sinus Bradycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial Flutter is characterized by ‘sawtooth’ shaped P-waves (F-waves).
5. A patient with a head injury has a Glascow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7. How
should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Minor brain injury
B. Moderate brain injury
C. No brain injury
D. Severe brain injury
Answer: D
Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury and typically requires
intubation for airway protection.
, 6. Which clinical manifestation is indicative of the ‘Cold Phase’ of Septic Shock?
A. Mottled, cool extremities
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Warm, flushed skin
D. Tachycardia with normal blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: The late phase (cold phase) of septic shock is characterized by hypovolemia,
decreased cardiac output, and cool, mottled skin.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient on a mechanical ventilator. The ABG results are:
pH 7.25, PaCO2 55, HCO3 24. What is the interpretation?
A. Respiratory Alkalosis
B. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: A low pH (<7.35) and elevated PaCO2 (>45) indicate respiratory acidosis.
8. What is the primary goal of PEEP (Positive End-Expiratory Pressure) in a
patient with ARDS?
A. To prevent barotrauma
B. To decrease the work of breathing
C. To increase the respiratory rate
D. To keep the alveoli open at the end of expiration
Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP prevents alveolar collapse at the end of expiration, improving
oxygenation and functional residual capacity.
