NR 325 Adult Health III Week 7 Comprehensive Study Guide 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. Which of the following criteria is part of the Systemic Inflammatory Response
Syndrome (SIRS) definition?
A. Temperature greater than 100.4 F (38 C)
B. Heart rate less than 60 beats per minute
C. White blood cell count between 5,000 and 10,000/mm3
D. Respiratory rate less than 12 breaths per minute
Answer: A
Rationale: SIRS criteria include temperature >100.4 F or <96.8 F, heart rate >90 bpm,
respiratory rate >20 bpm or PaCO2 <32 mmHg, and WBC count >12,000 or <4,000.
2. When two or more organ systems fail in an acutely ill patient, the condition is
known as:
A. Septic Shock
B. Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS)
C. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
D. Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)
Answer: B
Rationale: MODS is defined as the failure of two or more organ systems such that
homeostasis cannot be maintained without intervention.
,3. In the Primary Survey of a trauma patient, what does the ‘D’ represent?
A. Disability
B. Drugs and Diet
C. Decontamination
D. Detailed Physical Exam
Answer: A
Rationale: The Primary Survey follows ABCDE: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability
(neurological status), and Exposure/Environmental control.
4. During the emergent phase of a burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is
most commonly expected?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: During the emergent phase, cell destruction releases potassium into the
extracellular fluid, resulting in hyperkalemia.
5. A patient arrives with 30% total body surface area (TBSA) burns. Using the
Parkland Formula (4mL/kg/%TBSA), how much fluid should a 70kg patient
receive in the first 8 hours?
A. 8,400 mL
B. 5,600 mL
C. 2,100 mL
D. 4,200 mL
Answer: D
Rationale: Total fluid = 4mL x 70kg x 30 = 8,400 mL. Half is given in the first 8 hours: 8,400
/ 2 = 4,200 mL.
, 6. Which triage tag is assigned to a patient who has a sucking chest wound and
requires immediate intervention?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Black
D. Red
Answer: D
Rationale: Red tags are for ‘Immediate’ life-threatening injuries that are treatable, such as
airway or breathing issues.
7. What is the hallmark clinical sign of Neurogenic Shock that distinguishes it
from other types of shock?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Bradycardia
D. Cool, clammy skin
Answer: C
Rationale: Neurogenic shock results in the loss of sympathetic tone, leading to the ‘classic’
triad of hypotension, bradycardia, and poikilothermia.
8. A patient in septic shock has a Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) of 55 mmHg
despite fluid resuscitation. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer a 500mL bolus of Dextrose 5% in water
B. Initiate a vasopressor such as Norepinephrine
C. Increase the IV maintenance rate
D. Recheck the blood pressure in 30 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: If MAP remains <65 mmHg after fluid resuscitation in septic shock,
vasopressors (usually norepinephrine) are indicated.
|Chamberlain College
1. Which of the following criteria is part of the Systemic Inflammatory Response
Syndrome (SIRS) definition?
A. Temperature greater than 100.4 F (38 C)
B. Heart rate less than 60 beats per minute
C. White blood cell count between 5,000 and 10,000/mm3
D. Respiratory rate less than 12 breaths per minute
Answer: A
Rationale: SIRS criteria include temperature >100.4 F or <96.8 F, heart rate >90 bpm,
respiratory rate >20 bpm or PaCO2 <32 mmHg, and WBC count >12,000 or <4,000.
2. When two or more organ systems fail in an acutely ill patient, the condition is
known as:
A. Septic Shock
B. Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS)
C. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
D. Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)
Answer: B
Rationale: MODS is defined as the failure of two or more organ systems such that
homeostasis cannot be maintained without intervention.
,3. In the Primary Survey of a trauma patient, what does the ‘D’ represent?
A. Disability
B. Drugs and Diet
C. Decontamination
D. Detailed Physical Exam
Answer: A
Rationale: The Primary Survey follows ABCDE: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability
(neurological status), and Exposure/Environmental control.
4. During the emergent phase of a burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is
most commonly expected?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: During the emergent phase, cell destruction releases potassium into the
extracellular fluid, resulting in hyperkalemia.
5. A patient arrives with 30% total body surface area (TBSA) burns. Using the
Parkland Formula (4mL/kg/%TBSA), how much fluid should a 70kg patient
receive in the first 8 hours?
A. 8,400 mL
B. 5,600 mL
C. 2,100 mL
D. 4,200 mL
Answer: D
Rationale: Total fluid = 4mL x 70kg x 30 = 8,400 mL. Half is given in the first 8 hours: 8,400
/ 2 = 4,200 mL.
, 6. Which triage tag is assigned to a patient who has a sucking chest wound and
requires immediate intervention?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Black
D. Red
Answer: D
Rationale: Red tags are for ‘Immediate’ life-threatening injuries that are treatable, such as
airway or breathing issues.
7. What is the hallmark clinical sign of Neurogenic Shock that distinguishes it
from other types of shock?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Bradycardia
D. Cool, clammy skin
Answer: C
Rationale: Neurogenic shock results in the loss of sympathetic tone, leading to the ‘classic’
triad of hypotension, bradycardia, and poikilothermia.
8. A patient in septic shock has a Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) of 55 mmHg
despite fluid resuscitation. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer a 500mL bolus of Dextrose 5% in water
B. Initiate a vasopressor such as Norepinephrine
C. Increase the IV maintenance rate
D. Recheck the blood pressure in 30 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: If MAP remains <65 mmHg after fluid resuscitation in septic shock,
vasopressors (usually norepinephrine) are indicated.
