ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam
2026 Elite Edition | 180+ Verified Questions & In-
Depth Rationales | NGN-Aligned Test Bank |
Complete Domain Coverage | A+ Study System
1. Safe and Effective Care Environment
Management of Care (e.g., delegation, supervision, client rights, continuity
of care)
Safety and Infection Control (e.g., accident prevention, emergency
response, standard/transmission-based precautions)
2. Health Promotion and Maintenance
(e.g., aging process, prenatal care, growth and development, disease
prevention)
3. Psychosocial Integrity
(e.g., therapeutic communication, crisis intervention, behavioral
interventions, support systems)
4. Physiological Integrity
Basic Care and Comfort (e.g., nutrition, elimination, non-pharmacological
comfort)
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies (e.g., adverse effects,
medication administration, IV therapy)
Reduction of Risk Potential (e.g., diagnostic tests, vital signs, therapeutic
procedures)
Physiological Adaptation (e.g., pathophysiology, body system alterations,
medical emergencies)
,180 Examination Questions with Verified Answers
SECTION I: SAFE AND EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT
Management of Care (30 Questions)
1. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following tasks is
appropriate to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assess a client's post-operative incision for signs of infection.
B. Evaluate the effectiveness of pain medication for a client with chronic pain.
C. Feed a client who had a stroke and has difficulty swallowing.
D. Obtain a blood glucose reading for a client with diabetes.
• Correct Answer: D
• Rationale: Delegation is based on state practice acts and facility policies. Tasks
that are standard, have predictable outcomes, and do not require nursing
judgment can be delegated to UAP. Obtaining a blood glucose reading using a
glucometer is a routine, delegated task for stable clients. Assessment (A) and
evaluation (B) require the clinical judgment of a licensed nurse. Feeding a client
with dysphagia (C) requires specialized assessment and knowledge to prevent
aspiration and is not appropriate for a UAP.
2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for four clients. Which of the following
clients should the nurse see first?
A. A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema and a weight gain of 2 lb in 24
hours.
B. A client with pneumonia who has an oxygen saturation of 91% on 2 L/min nasal
cannula.
C. A client with diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL and is
diaphoretic.
D. A client post-cholecystectomy who reports pain as 6 on a 0-10 scale.
• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: The client with hypoglycemia (BS 60 mg/dL) is experiencing a life-
threatening alteration in a physiological need (glucose). This client requires
immediate intervention to prevent neurological injury or death. The other clients
have non-urgent, chronic, or expected findings. Using the ABCs (Airway,
Breathing, Circulation) and Maslow's hierarchy of needs, a blood glucose of 60
mg/dL with diaphoresis takes priority.
,3. A nurse is preparing to delegate a task to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which of
the following tasks is within the LPN's scope of practice?
A. Administer a blood transfusion.
B. Perform an initial admission assessment.
C. Reinforce teaching about a new medication to a client.
D. Create the plan of care for a newly admitted client.
• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: The LPN's scope of practice includes reinforcing teaching that has
already been initiated by the RN. The RN is responsible for the initial assessment
(B), developing the plan of care (D), and for tasks requiring complex nursing
judgment, such as administering a blood transfusion (A) (though some state
Nurse Practice Acts may allow LPNs to monitor transfusions, initiating it is
typically an RN role).
4. A client is scheduled for surgery and has just signed the informed consent form. The
client then asks the nurse, "I'm still not sure why I need this surgery." Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A. Explain the procedure and risks again and have the client sign a new consent form.
B. Reassure the client that the procedure is necessary and safe.
C. Notify the surgeon that the client has questions about the procedure.
D. Document the client's statement in the medical record.
• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the signature and
ensure the client is giving consent voluntarily. If a client expresses confusion or
lack of understanding, the nurse must notify the provider (the surgeon) so they
can clarify the procedure, risks, and benefits. It is the surgeon's legal
responsibility to obtain informed consent. The nurse should not attempt to
explain the procedure (A) as this is outside their scope.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and is not expected to survive
more than 48 hours. The client's family asks the nurse about a do-not-resuscitate (DNR)
order. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. "I will ask the provider to come speak with you about that."
B. "A DNR order means we will not provide any further treatment."
C. "I can provide you with information about DNR orders."
D. "You should focus on making your loved one comfortable for now."
• Correct Answer: A
, • Rationale: DNR orders are written by a provider after discussion with the client
or their legal representative. The nurse can clarify facts but should not initiate the
discussion or make recommendations. The most appropriate action is to facilitate
a conversation between the family and the provider.
6. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse provide care to a client. Which of
the following actions by the newly licensed nurse indicates a need for further teaching
regarding infection control?
A. Wearing an N95 respirator when caring for a client with tuberculosis.
B. Placing a client with Clostridium difficile in a room with a client with a wound
infection.
C. Using an alcohol-based hand rub after removing gloves that were in contact with
blood.
D. Donning a clean gown before entering the room of a client on contact precautions.
• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Clients with C. difficile require contact precautions. Cohorting is
acceptable only if both clients have the same active infection. Placing a client
with C. diff in a room with a client who has a different infection (a wound
infection) puts the second client at risk for cross-contamination and is unsafe.
7. A nurse manager is discussing the use of an advance directive with a group of nurses.
Which of the following statements by a nurse indicates understanding?
A. "An advance directive must be updated every year to be valid."
B. "An advance directive allows the client to document their treatment preferences."
C. "A living will appoints a specific person to make healthcare decisions."
D. "A durable power of attorney for health care is only effective when the client is
competent."
• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: An advance directive is a legal document that allows a client to
express their wishes regarding medical treatment in the event they become
incapacitated. A living will outlines specific treatment preferences (not appoints a
person). A durable power of attorney for health care appoints a proxy decision-
maker and becomes effective when the client is no longer competent.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a PCA pump. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Educate the client to push the button every 15 minutes for the first hour.
B. Instruct the client to have a family member press the button if the client is sleeping.
2026 Elite Edition | 180+ Verified Questions & In-
Depth Rationales | NGN-Aligned Test Bank |
Complete Domain Coverage | A+ Study System
1. Safe and Effective Care Environment
Management of Care (e.g., delegation, supervision, client rights, continuity
of care)
Safety and Infection Control (e.g., accident prevention, emergency
response, standard/transmission-based precautions)
2. Health Promotion and Maintenance
(e.g., aging process, prenatal care, growth and development, disease
prevention)
3. Psychosocial Integrity
(e.g., therapeutic communication, crisis intervention, behavioral
interventions, support systems)
4. Physiological Integrity
Basic Care and Comfort (e.g., nutrition, elimination, non-pharmacological
comfort)
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies (e.g., adverse effects,
medication administration, IV therapy)
Reduction of Risk Potential (e.g., diagnostic tests, vital signs, therapeutic
procedures)
Physiological Adaptation (e.g., pathophysiology, body system alterations,
medical emergencies)
,180 Examination Questions with Verified Answers
SECTION I: SAFE AND EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT
Management of Care (30 Questions)
1. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following tasks is
appropriate to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assess a client's post-operative incision for signs of infection.
B. Evaluate the effectiveness of pain medication for a client with chronic pain.
C. Feed a client who had a stroke and has difficulty swallowing.
D. Obtain a blood glucose reading for a client with diabetes.
• Correct Answer: D
• Rationale: Delegation is based on state practice acts and facility policies. Tasks
that are standard, have predictable outcomes, and do not require nursing
judgment can be delegated to UAP. Obtaining a blood glucose reading using a
glucometer is a routine, delegated task for stable clients. Assessment (A) and
evaluation (B) require the clinical judgment of a licensed nurse. Feeding a client
with dysphagia (C) requires specialized assessment and knowledge to prevent
aspiration and is not appropriate for a UAP.
2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for four clients. Which of the following
clients should the nurse see first?
A. A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema and a weight gain of 2 lb in 24
hours.
B. A client with pneumonia who has an oxygen saturation of 91% on 2 L/min nasal
cannula.
C. A client with diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL and is
diaphoretic.
D. A client post-cholecystectomy who reports pain as 6 on a 0-10 scale.
• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: The client with hypoglycemia (BS 60 mg/dL) is experiencing a life-
threatening alteration in a physiological need (glucose). This client requires
immediate intervention to prevent neurological injury or death. The other clients
have non-urgent, chronic, or expected findings. Using the ABCs (Airway,
Breathing, Circulation) and Maslow's hierarchy of needs, a blood glucose of 60
mg/dL with diaphoresis takes priority.
,3. A nurse is preparing to delegate a task to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which of
the following tasks is within the LPN's scope of practice?
A. Administer a blood transfusion.
B. Perform an initial admission assessment.
C. Reinforce teaching about a new medication to a client.
D. Create the plan of care for a newly admitted client.
• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: The LPN's scope of practice includes reinforcing teaching that has
already been initiated by the RN. The RN is responsible for the initial assessment
(B), developing the plan of care (D), and for tasks requiring complex nursing
judgment, such as administering a blood transfusion (A) (though some state
Nurse Practice Acts may allow LPNs to monitor transfusions, initiating it is
typically an RN role).
4. A client is scheduled for surgery and has just signed the informed consent form. The
client then asks the nurse, "I'm still not sure why I need this surgery." Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A. Explain the procedure and risks again and have the client sign a new consent form.
B. Reassure the client that the procedure is necessary and safe.
C. Notify the surgeon that the client has questions about the procedure.
D. Document the client's statement in the medical record.
• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the signature and
ensure the client is giving consent voluntarily. If a client expresses confusion or
lack of understanding, the nurse must notify the provider (the surgeon) so they
can clarify the procedure, risks, and benefits. It is the surgeon's legal
responsibility to obtain informed consent. The nurse should not attempt to
explain the procedure (A) as this is outside their scope.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and is not expected to survive
more than 48 hours. The client's family asks the nurse about a do-not-resuscitate (DNR)
order. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. "I will ask the provider to come speak with you about that."
B. "A DNR order means we will not provide any further treatment."
C. "I can provide you with information about DNR orders."
D. "You should focus on making your loved one comfortable for now."
• Correct Answer: A
, • Rationale: DNR orders are written by a provider after discussion with the client
or their legal representative. The nurse can clarify facts but should not initiate the
discussion or make recommendations. The most appropriate action is to facilitate
a conversation between the family and the provider.
6. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse provide care to a client. Which of
the following actions by the newly licensed nurse indicates a need for further teaching
regarding infection control?
A. Wearing an N95 respirator when caring for a client with tuberculosis.
B. Placing a client with Clostridium difficile in a room with a client with a wound
infection.
C. Using an alcohol-based hand rub after removing gloves that were in contact with
blood.
D. Donning a clean gown before entering the room of a client on contact precautions.
• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Clients with C. difficile require contact precautions. Cohorting is
acceptable only if both clients have the same active infection. Placing a client
with C. diff in a room with a client who has a different infection (a wound
infection) puts the second client at risk for cross-contamination and is unsafe.
7. A nurse manager is discussing the use of an advance directive with a group of nurses.
Which of the following statements by a nurse indicates understanding?
A. "An advance directive must be updated every year to be valid."
B. "An advance directive allows the client to document their treatment preferences."
C. "A living will appoints a specific person to make healthcare decisions."
D. "A durable power of attorney for health care is only effective when the client is
competent."
• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: An advance directive is a legal document that allows a client to
express their wishes regarding medical treatment in the event they become
incapacitated. A living will outlines specific treatment preferences (not appoints a
person). A durable power of attorney for health care appoints a proxy decision-
maker and becomes effective when the client is no longer competent.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a PCA pump. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Educate the client to push the button every 15 minutes for the first hour.
B. Instruct the client to have a family member press the button if the client is sleeping.
