DAVIS ADVANTAGE FOR MATERNAL CHILD
NURSING CARE
Comprehensive Exams Set 2026 | Full Solution | Graded A+
OB/Pediatric/Newborn | NCLEX-PN/RN | HESI | ATI Preparation
Student Name: ________________________ Date: _______________ Score: _______ / 100
This Davis Advantage Maternal Child Nursing Care Comprehensive Exam provides 100 multiple-choice questions
covering antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, newborn, pediatric growth and development, childhood illnesses,
immunizations, child abuse, medication administration, and NGN-style clinical judgment aligned with the Davis
Advantage answer key for maternal-child nursing success.
Antepar tum Nur sin g
1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks' gestation is attending her first prenatal visit. The nurse explains that the
initial visit will include which of the following assessments?
Answer: B. Complete blood count, blood type and Rh factor, urinalysis, and Pap smear
Rationale: The first prenatal visit includes a comprehensive health history, physical examination, and baseline
laboratory studies including CBC, blood type and Rh factor, rubella titer, HIV screening, syphilis serology, hepatitis B
surface antigen, urinalysis, and Pap smear. Biophysical profiles and glucose tolerance testing are performed later in
pregnancy.
A) Biophysical profile and fetal kick counts
B) Complete blood count, blood type and Rh factor, urinalysis, and Pap smear
C) Weekly nonstress testing and cervical length measurement
D) Oral glucose tolerance test and group B streptococcus culture
2. A pregnant client at 35 weeks' gestation asks about the purpose of the nonstress test (NST) scheduled
for today. The nurse explains that the NST evaluates which of the following?
Answer: C. Fetal heart rate accelerations in response to fetal movement
Rationale: The nonstress test (NST) assesses fetal well-being by measuring fetal heart rate accelerations that occur
in response to fetal movement. A reactive NST (two or more accelerations of at least 15 bpm above baseline, lasting
15 seconds, within a 20-minute period) indicates a well-oxygenated fetus.
A) Fetal anatomical structures and amniotic fluid volume
B) Fetal heart rate response to uterine contractions
C) Fetal heart rate accelerations in response to fetal movement
D) Maternal blood pressure response to positional changes during pregnancy
3. A nurse is reviewing prenatal laboratory results for a client at 16 weeks' gestation. The client's blood
type is O-negative. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
Answer: C. "You will receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks' gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the
baby is Rh-positive."
,Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) 300 mcg IM is administered to Rh-negative clients at 28 weeks'
gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the infant is Rh-positive. This prevents maternal sensitization by
neutralizing any fetal Rh-positive red blood cells that have entered the maternal circulation.
A) "You will need to receive Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 16 weeks and again at
delivery."
B) "Since this is your first pregnancy, you do not need RhoGAM until after delivery if the baby is
Rh-positive."
C) "You will receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks' gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the baby
is Rh-positive."
D) "RhoGAM is no longer recommended because modern screening has made Rh sensitization
rare."
4. A client at 28 weeks' gestation has a hemoglobin level of 10.2 g/dL. Which physiologic explanation
should the nurse provide?
Answer: B. This represents physiologic anemia of pregnancy caused by disproportionate expansion of
plasma volume compared to red blood cell mass.
Rationale: Physiologic anemia (hemodilution) of pregnancy occurs because plasma volume increases by up to 50%
while red blood cell mass increases by only 20% to 30%. Hemoglobin levels typically drop to 10.5 to 11.0 g/dL by the
second trimester. True iron-deficiency anemia is diagnosed when hemoglobin falls below 11 g/dL in the first or third
trimester, or below 10.5 g/dL in the second trimester.
A) This is pathologic anemia requiring immediate iron supplementation and possible blood
transfusion.
B) This represents physiologic anemia of pregnancy caused by disproportionate expansion of
plasma volume compared to red blood cell mass.
C) This is a normal hemoglobin level for the second trimester and requires no intervention.
D) This indicates iron-deficiency anemia caused by inadequate dietary intake during pregnancy.
5. A pregnant client at 32 weeks' gestation reports feeling lightheaded and dizzy when lying on her back.
The nurse assesses the client and notes a blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg in the supine position. The
nurse should instruct the client to do which of the following?
Answer: B. Turn to the left lateral position and recheck blood pressure
Rationale: Supine hypotension syndrome (aortocaval compression) occurs when the gravid uterus compresses the
inferior vena cava and aorta in the supine position, reducing venous return and cardiac output. This leads to
decreased blood pressure, dizziness, and pallor. Turning to the left lateral position relieves the compression and
restores adequate perfusion.
A) Remain supine and elevate the legs above the heart level
B) Turn to the left lateral position and recheck blood pressure
C) Drink 8 oz of orange juice and recheck blood pressure in 15 minutes
D) Perform deep breathing exercises while remaining in the supine position
6. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who reports increased urinary frequency and occasional urinary
incontinence. The nurse understands that which physiologic change of pregnancy contributes to these
symptoms?
, Answer: D. Increased glomerular filtration rate and pressure from the enlarging uterus on the bladder
Rationale: During pregnancy, renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) increase by 30% to 50%, resulting
in increased urine production. Additionally, the enlarging uterus exerts pressure on the bladder, causing urinary
frequency and occasional stress incontinence. Glycosuria may also occur due to the increased GFR exceeding the
renal tubular reabsorption threshold for glucose.
A) Decreased glomerular filtration rate leading to fluid retention
B) Reduced renal blood flow due to compression of the renal arteries
C) Elevated progesterone levels causing bladder sphincter relaxation only
D) Increased glomerular filtration rate and pressure from the enlarging uterus on the bladder
7. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 36 weeks' gestation. Which finding on the maternal
integumentary assessment is a normal expected change of pregnancy?
Answer: A. A brownish-black line running from the umbilicus to the pubic symphysis
Rationale: Linea nigra is a brownish-black hyperpigmented line that extends from the umbilicus to the pubic
symphysis and is caused by increased melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy. Striae gravidarum
(stretch marks) on the abdomen, breasts, and thighs are also normal. Pruritus with jaundice suggests cholestasis of
pregnancy, and petechiae or bullous rashes require further evaluation for conditions such as preeclampsia or
pemphigoid gestationis.
A) A brownish-black line running from the umbilicus to the pubic symphysis
B) Generalized pruritus with jaundice and dark-colored urine
C) Petechiae and purpura on the lower extremities
D) A bullous, vesicular rash on the abdomen and extremities
8. A pregnant client at 15 weeks' gestation is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse provides pre-
procedure education. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the procedure?
Answer: B. "A needle will be inserted through my abdomen to remove a small amount of amniotic
fluid for analysis."
Rationale: Amniocentesis is typically performed after 15 weeks' gestation. A needle is inserted transabdominally
under ultrasound guidance to aspirate amniotic fluid containing fetal cells for chromosomal analysis, alpha-
fetoprotein level, and lung maturity studies. Risks include membrane rupture, fetal loss (approximately 0.5%), and
maternal infection. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), not amniocentesis, is performed between 10 and 13 weeks.
A) "This test is performed between 10 and 13 weeks to detect chromosomal abnormalities."
B) "A needle will be inserted through my abdomen to remove a small amount of amniotic fluid for
analysis."
C) "I will need to have a full bladder to ensure the ultrasound can visualize the fetus."
D) "This procedure carries no risk to the fetus and will confirm the baby's blood type."
9. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client at 14 weeks' gestation who has been diagnosed with
hyperemesis gravidarum. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?
Answer: D. Consume small, frequent, low-fat, dry meals and avoid triggers such as strong odors
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to
dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss greater than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight. Management
NURSING CARE
Comprehensive Exams Set 2026 | Full Solution | Graded A+
OB/Pediatric/Newborn | NCLEX-PN/RN | HESI | ATI Preparation
Student Name: ________________________ Date: _______________ Score: _______ / 100
This Davis Advantage Maternal Child Nursing Care Comprehensive Exam provides 100 multiple-choice questions
covering antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, newborn, pediatric growth and development, childhood illnesses,
immunizations, child abuse, medication administration, and NGN-style clinical judgment aligned with the Davis
Advantage answer key for maternal-child nursing success.
Antepar tum Nur sin g
1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks' gestation is attending her first prenatal visit. The nurse explains that the
initial visit will include which of the following assessments?
Answer: B. Complete blood count, blood type and Rh factor, urinalysis, and Pap smear
Rationale: The first prenatal visit includes a comprehensive health history, physical examination, and baseline
laboratory studies including CBC, blood type and Rh factor, rubella titer, HIV screening, syphilis serology, hepatitis B
surface antigen, urinalysis, and Pap smear. Biophysical profiles and glucose tolerance testing are performed later in
pregnancy.
A) Biophysical profile and fetal kick counts
B) Complete blood count, blood type and Rh factor, urinalysis, and Pap smear
C) Weekly nonstress testing and cervical length measurement
D) Oral glucose tolerance test and group B streptococcus culture
2. A pregnant client at 35 weeks' gestation asks about the purpose of the nonstress test (NST) scheduled
for today. The nurse explains that the NST evaluates which of the following?
Answer: C. Fetal heart rate accelerations in response to fetal movement
Rationale: The nonstress test (NST) assesses fetal well-being by measuring fetal heart rate accelerations that occur
in response to fetal movement. A reactive NST (two or more accelerations of at least 15 bpm above baseline, lasting
15 seconds, within a 20-minute period) indicates a well-oxygenated fetus.
A) Fetal anatomical structures and amniotic fluid volume
B) Fetal heart rate response to uterine contractions
C) Fetal heart rate accelerations in response to fetal movement
D) Maternal blood pressure response to positional changes during pregnancy
3. A nurse is reviewing prenatal laboratory results for a client at 16 weeks' gestation. The client's blood
type is O-negative. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
Answer: C. "You will receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks' gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the
baby is Rh-positive."
,Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) 300 mcg IM is administered to Rh-negative clients at 28 weeks'
gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the infant is Rh-positive. This prevents maternal sensitization by
neutralizing any fetal Rh-positive red blood cells that have entered the maternal circulation.
A) "You will need to receive Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 16 weeks and again at
delivery."
B) "Since this is your first pregnancy, you do not need RhoGAM until after delivery if the baby is
Rh-positive."
C) "You will receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks' gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the baby
is Rh-positive."
D) "RhoGAM is no longer recommended because modern screening has made Rh sensitization
rare."
4. A client at 28 weeks' gestation has a hemoglobin level of 10.2 g/dL. Which physiologic explanation
should the nurse provide?
Answer: B. This represents physiologic anemia of pregnancy caused by disproportionate expansion of
plasma volume compared to red blood cell mass.
Rationale: Physiologic anemia (hemodilution) of pregnancy occurs because plasma volume increases by up to 50%
while red blood cell mass increases by only 20% to 30%. Hemoglobin levels typically drop to 10.5 to 11.0 g/dL by the
second trimester. True iron-deficiency anemia is diagnosed when hemoglobin falls below 11 g/dL in the first or third
trimester, or below 10.5 g/dL in the second trimester.
A) This is pathologic anemia requiring immediate iron supplementation and possible blood
transfusion.
B) This represents physiologic anemia of pregnancy caused by disproportionate expansion of
plasma volume compared to red blood cell mass.
C) This is a normal hemoglobin level for the second trimester and requires no intervention.
D) This indicates iron-deficiency anemia caused by inadequate dietary intake during pregnancy.
5. A pregnant client at 32 weeks' gestation reports feeling lightheaded and dizzy when lying on her back.
The nurse assesses the client and notes a blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg in the supine position. The
nurse should instruct the client to do which of the following?
Answer: B. Turn to the left lateral position and recheck blood pressure
Rationale: Supine hypotension syndrome (aortocaval compression) occurs when the gravid uterus compresses the
inferior vena cava and aorta in the supine position, reducing venous return and cardiac output. This leads to
decreased blood pressure, dizziness, and pallor. Turning to the left lateral position relieves the compression and
restores adequate perfusion.
A) Remain supine and elevate the legs above the heart level
B) Turn to the left lateral position and recheck blood pressure
C) Drink 8 oz of orange juice and recheck blood pressure in 15 minutes
D) Perform deep breathing exercises while remaining in the supine position
6. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who reports increased urinary frequency and occasional urinary
incontinence. The nurse understands that which physiologic change of pregnancy contributes to these
symptoms?
, Answer: D. Increased glomerular filtration rate and pressure from the enlarging uterus on the bladder
Rationale: During pregnancy, renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) increase by 30% to 50%, resulting
in increased urine production. Additionally, the enlarging uterus exerts pressure on the bladder, causing urinary
frequency and occasional stress incontinence. Glycosuria may also occur due to the increased GFR exceeding the
renal tubular reabsorption threshold for glucose.
A) Decreased glomerular filtration rate leading to fluid retention
B) Reduced renal blood flow due to compression of the renal arteries
C) Elevated progesterone levels causing bladder sphincter relaxation only
D) Increased glomerular filtration rate and pressure from the enlarging uterus on the bladder
7. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 36 weeks' gestation. Which finding on the maternal
integumentary assessment is a normal expected change of pregnancy?
Answer: A. A brownish-black line running from the umbilicus to the pubic symphysis
Rationale: Linea nigra is a brownish-black hyperpigmented line that extends from the umbilicus to the pubic
symphysis and is caused by increased melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy. Striae gravidarum
(stretch marks) on the abdomen, breasts, and thighs are also normal. Pruritus with jaundice suggests cholestasis of
pregnancy, and petechiae or bullous rashes require further evaluation for conditions such as preeclampsia or
pemphigoid gestationis.
A) A brownish-black line running from the umbilicus to the pubic symphysis
B) Generalized pruritus with jaundice and dark-colored urine
C) Petechiae and purpura on the lower extremities
D) A bullous, vesicular rash on the abdomen and extremities
8. A pregnant client at 15 weeks' gestation is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse provides pre-
procedure education. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the procedure?
Answer: B. "A needle will be inserted through my abdomen to remove a small amount of amniotic
fluid for analysis."
Rationale: Amniocentesis is typically performed after 15 weeks' gestation. A needle is inserted transabdominally
under ultrasound guidance to aspirate amniotic fluid containing fetal cells for chromosomal analysis, alpha-
fetoprotein level, and lung maturity studies. Risks include membrane rupture, fetal loss (approximately 0.5%), and
maternal infection. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), not amniocentesis, is performed between 10 and 13 weeks.
A) "This test is performed between 10 and 13 weeks to detect chromosomal abnormalities."
B) "A needle will be inserted through my abdomen to remove a small amount of amniotic fluid for
analysis."
C) "I will need to have a full bladder to ensure the ultrasound can visualize the fetus."
D) "This procedure carries no risk to the fetus and will confirm the baby's blood type."
9. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client at 14 weeks' gestation who has been diagnosed with
hyperemesis gravidarum. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?
Answer: D. Consume small, frequent, low-fat, dry meals and avoid triggers such as strong odors
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to
dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss greater than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight. Management
