FISDAP OPERATIONS EXAM REVIEW
QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE SOLUTIONS
2026
▶ The role of triage officer at a mass-casualty incident should be assumed
by the:
A) most knowledgeable EMS provider.
B) EMS provider with the most years in EMS.
C) first EMS provider who is willing to perform the task.
D) EMS medical director via telephone communication.. Answer: A) most
knowledgeable EMS provider.
The role of triage officer should be assumed by the most knowledgeable
EMS provider at the scene. Knowledge and experience will enable this
person to
most effectively manage the triage process. Just because a person has
been in the EMS profession for a long period of time does not mean that he
or she has
been active or has maintained clinical competence.
▶ While triaging patients at a mass-casualty incident, you encounter a
responsive middle-aged woman with a respiratory rate of 26
breaths/min. What should you do next?
A) Triage her as immediate (red tag)
B) Assess for bilateral radial pulses
C) Administer high-flow oxygen at once
D) Assess her ability to follow commands. Answer: B) Assess for bilateral
radial pulses
According to the Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment {START) method, if
you encounter an adult patient with a respiratory rate that is less than 10
breaths/min or greater than 29 breaths/min, you should triage him or her as
immediate (red tag) and move to the next patient. However, if the patient's
respiratory rate is between 10 and 29 breaths/min, you should assess his
or her hemodynamic status by checking for bilateral radial pulses. If the
patient's
,radial pulses are absent, triage him or her as immediate and move to the
next patient. If the patient's radial pulses are present, assess his or her
ability to
follow simple commands. If the patient is able to follow simple commands,
triage him or her as delayed (yellow tag) and move to the next patient. If
the
patient is unable to follow simple commands, triage him or her as
immediate and move to the next patient. Treatment does not occur during
the initial triage
process.
▶ Which of the following patients has the highest priority at the scene of a
mass-casualty incident?
A) 29-year-old man who is pulseless and apneic with an abdominal
evisceration
B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring respirations and severe
burns
C) 38-year-old woman who remains apneic after you manually open her
airway
D) 44-year-old unresponsive man with an open head injury and agonal
gasps. Answer: B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring
respirations and severe burns
The goal of triage is to provide the greatest good for the greatest number of
people. Relative to the other patients, who are either in respiratory or
cardiac
arrest or have injuries incompatible with life, the woman with snoring
respirations and severe burns has the best chance for survival. Therefore,
she is the
highest treatment priority.
▶ The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of
hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue personnel is
called:
A) autoclaving.
B) sterilization.
C) detoxification.
D) decontamination.. Answer: D) decontamination.
,Decontamination is the process of removing or neutralizing and properly
disposing of hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue
personnel.
Decontamination should occur in the warm zone of a hazardous materials
incident. The process of autoclaving involves the use of heat to sterilize
instruments; clearly, this is not practical in the prehospital setting.
Sterilization involves making an object free from bacteria or other living
organisms;
sterilization at an emergency incident is generally not possible.
Detoxification involves the removal of toxic substances from a living
organism; while the
process of decontamination may remove or neutralize toxins, it does not kill
them.
▶ Which of the following statements regarding the use of an escort vehicle
when en route to an emergency call is correct?
A) An escort vehicle will allow you to arrive at the scene more quickly.
B) To avoid getting separated from the escort vehicle, you should follow it
closely.
C) An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the
patient's location.
D) With an escort vehicle, the risk of an accident at an intersection is
reduced significantly.. Answer: C) An escort vehicle should be used only if
you are unfamiliar with the patient's location.
Generally, escort vehicles should not be used when responding to an
emergency scene. The biggest danger of using an escort occurs at
intersections, which
is where most ambulance crashes occur. Drivers may yield to the escort
vehicle, but may not be prepared for a second vehicle following the escort
(a wake
effect collision). The only time that an escort may be required is when you
are unfamiliar with the location of the patient and need assistance getting
there. If
an escort must be used, you must follow at a safe distance of at least 500
feet.
▶ You are called to transport a patient with terminal lung cancer from a
skilled nursing facility to the emergency department for evaluation of
, possible pneumonia. As you are reviewing the transfer paperwork, you see
that the patient has a valid do not attempt resuscitation order.
During transport, you should:
A) perform CPR for only 2 minutes if the patient develops cardiac arrest.
B) disregard the DNAR order because it is only valid in the hospital setting.
C) provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the patient
comfortable.
D) monitor the patient because a DNAR order prohibits you from providing
care.. Answer: C) provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the
patient comfortable.
A valid do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR) order gives you the legal
authority not to initiate resuscitative efforts if the patient develops cardiac
arrest.
Because laws vary from state to state, you must be familiar with the DNAR
laws in the state in which you work as an EMT. Many states have adopted
out-of hospital DNAR orders; these are legal documents and should be
adhered to if they are valid. Generally speaking, a valid DNAR order must
clearly state the
patient's medical problem(s), be signed by the patient or legal guardian,
and be signed by one or more physicians. In some states, DNAR orders
have an
expiration date, while in others, no expiration date is included. Contact
medical control for guidance if the validity of a DNAR order is questionable.
Even in
the presence of a valid DNAR order, you are still obligated to provide
supportive measures, such as oxygen, pain relief, and comfort. DNAR does
NOT mean do not treat.
▶ When driving in emergency mode on a multilane highway, the
emergency vehicle operator should keep to the:
A) right shoulder so that traffic flow is not disrupted.
B) extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right.
C) extreme right lane so motorists can yield to the left.
D) center lane so the traffic can flow around the ambulance.. Answer: B)
extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right.
When traveling on a highway with more than one lane, the emergency
vehicle operator should remain in the extreme left-hand (fast) lane. This
allows other
QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE SOLUTIONS
2026
▶ The role of triage officer at a mass-casualty incident should be assumed
by the:
A) most knowledgeable EMS provider.
B) EMS provider with the most years in EMS.
C) first EMS provider who is willing to perform the task.
D) EMS medical director via telephone communication.. Answer: A) most
knowledgeable EMS provider.
The role of triage officer should be assumed by the most knowledgeable
EMS provider at the scene. Knowledge and experience will enable this
person to
most effectively manage the triage process. Just because a person has
been in the EMS profession for a long period of time does not mean that he
or she has
been active or has maintained clinical competence.
▶ While triaging patients at a mass-casualty incident, you encounter a
responsive middle-aged woman with a respiratory rate of 26
breaths/min. What should you do next?
A) Triage her as immediate (red tag)
B) Assess for bilateral radial pulses
C) Administer high-flow oxygen at once
D) Assess her ability to follow commands. Answer: B) Assess for bilateral
radial pulses
According to the Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment {START) method, if
you encounter an adult patient with a respiratory rate that is less than 10
breaths/min or greater than 29 breaths/min, you should triage him or her as
immediate (red tag) and move to the next patient. However, if the patient's
respiratory rate is between 10 and 29 breaths/min, you should assess his
or her hemodynamic status by checking for bilateral radial pulses. If the
patient's
,radial pulses are absent, triage him or her as immediate and move to the
next patient. If the patient's radial pulses are present, assess his or her
ability to
follow simple commands. If the patient is able to follow simple commands,
triage him or her as delayed (yellow tag) and move to the next patient. If
the
patient is unable to follow simple commands, triage him or her as
immediate and move to the next patient. Treatment does not occur during
the initial triage
process.
▶ Which of the following patients has the highest priority at the scene of a
mass-casualty incident?
A) 29-year-old man who is pulseless and apneic with an abdominal
evisceration
B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring respirations and severe
burns
C) 38-year-old woman who remains apneic after you manually open her
airway
D) 44-year-old unresponsive man with an open head injury and agonal
gasps. Answer: B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring
respirations and severe burns
The goal of triage is to provide the greatest good for the greatest number of
people. Relative to the other patients, who are either in respiratory or
cardiac
arrest or have injuries incompatible with life, the woman with snoring
respirations and severe burns has the best chance for survival. Therefore,
she is the
highest treatment priority.
▶ The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of
hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue personnel is
called:
A) autoclaving.
B) sterilization.
C) detoxification.
D) decontamination.. Answer: D) decontamination.
,Decontamination is the process of removing or neutralizing and properly
disposing of hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue
personnel.
Decontamination should occur in the warm zone of a hazardous materials
incident. The process of autoclaving involves the use of heat to sterilize
instruments; clearly, this is not practical in the prehospital setting.
Sterilization involves making an object free from bacteria or other living
organisms;
sterilization at an emergency incident is generally not possible.
Detoxification involves the removal of toxic substances from a living
organism; while the
process of decontamination may remove or neutralize toxins, it does not kill
them.
▶ Which of the following statements regarding the use of an escort vehicle
when en route to an emergency call is correct?
A) An escort vehicle will allow you to arrive at the scene more quickly.
B) To avoid getting separated from the escort vehicle, you should follow it
closely.
C) An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the
patient's location.
D) With an escort vehicle, the risk of an accident at an intersection is
reduced significantly.. Answer: C) An escort vehicle should be used only if
you are unfamiliar with the patient's location.
Generally, escort vehicles should not be used when responding to an
emergency scene. The biggest danger of using an escort occurs at
intersections, which
is where most ambulance crashes occur. Drivers may yield to the escort
vehicle, but may not be prepared for a second vehicle following the escort
(a wake
effect collision). The only time that an escort may be required is when you
are unfamiliar with the location of the patient and need assistance getting
there. If
an escort must be used, you must follow at a safe distance of at least 500
feet.
▶ You are called to transport a patient with terminal lung cancer from a
skilled nursing facility to the emergency department for evaluation of
, possible pneumonia. As you are reviewing the transfer paperwork, you see
that the patient has a valid do not attempt resuscitation order.
During transport, you should:
A) perform CPR for only 2 minutes if the patient develops cardiac arrest.
B) disregard the DNAR order because it is only valid in the hospital setting.
C) provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the patient
comfortable.
D) monitor the patient because a DNAR order prohibits you from providing
care.. Answer: C) provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the
patient comfortable.
A valid do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR) order gives you the legal
authority not to initiate resuscitative efforts if the patient develops cardiac
arrest.
Because laws vary from state to state, you must be familiar with the DNAR
laws in the state in which you work as an EMT. Many states have adopted
out-of hospital DNAR orders; these are legal documents and should be
adhered to if they are valid. Generally speaking, a valid DNAR order must
clearly state the
patient's medical problem(s), be signed by the patient or legal guardian,
and be signed by one or more physicians. In some states, DNAR orders
have an
expiration date, while in others, no expiration date is included. Contact
medical control for guidance if the validity of a DNAR order is questionable.
Even in
the presence of a valid DNAR order, you are still obligated to provide
supportive measures, such as oxygen, pain relief, and comfort. DNAR does
NOT mean do not treat.
▶ When driving in emergency mode on a multilane highway, the
emergency vehicle operator should keep to the:
A) right shoulder so that traffic flow is not disrupted.
B) extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right.
C) extreme right lane so motorists can yield to the left.
D) center lane so the traffic can flow around the ambulance.. Answer: B)
extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right.
When traveling on a highway with more than one lane, the emergency
vehicle operator should remain in the extreme left-hand (fast) lane. This
allows other
