FISDAP OPERATIONS EXAM 2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | FULLY SOLVED
| VERIFIED ACCURATE SOLUTIONS | LATEST
UPDATED VERSION
• This document contains 200 fully solved FISDAP Operations Exam questions
covering all tested topics to help you prepare confidently and efficiently.
• Each question includes 5 options (A–E), a highlighted correct answer with EXPERT
RATIONALE — study by attempting each question first before checking the answer.
1. You are dispatched to a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find a
patient who is unresponsive, not breathing, and has no pulse. Which of the
following should you do FIRST?
A. Open the airway using a head-tilt chin-lift
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Apply an AED
D. Establish IV access
E. Call for ALS backup
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Begin chest compressions
EXPERT RATIONALE: According to current AHA guidelines, high-quality chest
compressions are the first priority in a pulseless, non-breathing patient. Compressions
should be initiated immediately before airway management or defibrillation.
2. A patient presents with severe respiratory distress and absent breath
sounds on the left side after a stab wound to the chest. You should suspect:
A. Hemothorax only
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Tension pneumothorax
,D. Flail chest
E. Cardiac tamponade
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tension pneumothorax
EXPERT RATIONALE: Absent breath sounds on one side following penetrating chest
trauma, combined with respiratory distress, strongly suggests tension pneumothorax.
This is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate needle decompression.
3. Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequate CPR
quality?
A. Visible chest rise
B. Patient skin color improvement
C. End-tidal CO2 reading of ≥10 mmHg
D. Carotid pulse felt during compressions
E. Pupillary response
CORRECT ANSWER: C. End-tidal CO2 reading of ≥10 mmHg
EXPERT RATIONALE: ETCO2 monitoring provides the most objective, real-time feedback
on CPR quality. A reading of ≥10 mmHg suggests adequate perfusion during
resuscitation efforts.
4. You respond to a call for a 67-year-old male complaining of crushing chest
pain radiating to his left arm. His BP is 142/88, HR 98, RR 18. What is your
PRIORITY intervention?
A. Establish IV access and give normal saline bolus
B. Administer oxygen, obtain 12-lead ECG, give aspirin
C. Perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment
D. Administer nitroglycerin immediately without further assessment
,E. Transport rapidly without further intervention
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Administer oxygen, obtain 12-lead ECG, give aspirin
EXPERT RATIONALE: For suspected acute MI, the priority is oxygen supplementation,
rapid 12-lead ECG acquisition to identify STEMI, and aspirin administration to prevent
further clot formation. These are foundational ACS management steps.
5. When ventilating an apneic adult patient with a BVM, what is the correct
ventilation rate?
A. 6–8 breaths per minute
B. 10–12 breaths per minute
C. 14–16 breaths per minute
D. 18–20 breaths per minute
E. 20–24 breaths per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 10–12 breaths per minute
EXPERT RATIONALE: The recommended BVM ventilation rate for an apneic adult is one
breath every 5–6 seconds (10–12/min). Over-ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure
and reduces venous return, decreasing cardiac output.
6. A patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3. This indicates:
A. Mild head injury
B. Moderate neurological impairment
C. The patient is awake and oriented
D. The lowest possible score, indicating deep unresponsiveness
E. Moderate head injury with verbal responses
CORRECT ANSWER: D. The lowest possible score, indicating deep
unresponsiveness
, EXPERT RATIONALE: The GCS ranges from 3–15. A score of 3 means no eye opening, no
verbal response, and no motor response — the minimum score, indicating complete
unresponsiveness.
7. Which of the following patients requires the MOST URGENT transport?
A. A 45-year-old with mild ankle sprain and stable vitals
B. A 30-year-old with nausea and normal BP
C. A 25-year-old with GCS of 8 and declining mental status
D. A 60-year-old with a rash and normal vitals
E. A 55-year-old with resolved chest pain
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A 25-year-old with GCS of 8 and declining mental
status
EXPERT RATIONALE: A GCS of 8 or below with deterioration suggests severe neurological
compromise. This patient needs immediate airway management and rapid transport to
a trauma center.
8. During a primary assessment, you note a patient has a patent airway,
adequate breathing, and a radial pulse. Your NEXT step is:
A. Obtain a full set of vital signs
B. Perform a secondary assessment
C. Control major bleeding
D. Obtain a SAMPLE history
E. Apply a cervical collar
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Control major bleeding
EXPERT RATIONALE: The primary assessment follows the ABCDE approach — Airway,
Breathing, Circulation (which includes controlling major hemorrhage), Disability, and
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | FULLY SOLVED
| VERIFIED ACCURATE SOLUTIONS | LATEST
UPDATED VERSION
• This document contains 200 fully solved FISDAP Operations Exam questions
covering all tested topics to help you prepare confidently and efficiently.
• Each question includes 5 options (A–E), a highlighted correct answer with EXPERT
RATIONALE — study by attempting each question first before checking the answer.
1. You are dispatched to a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find a
patient who is unresponsive, not breathing, and has no pulse. Which of the
following should you do FIRST?
A. Open the airway using a head-tilt chin-lift
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Apply an AED
D. Establish IV access
E. Call for ALS backup
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Begin chest compressions
EXPERT RATIONALE: According to current AHA guidelines, high-quality chest
compressions are the first priority in a pulseless, non-breathing patient. Compressions
should be initiated immediately before airway management or defibrillation.
2. A patient presents with severe respiratory distress and absent breath
sounds on the left side after a stab wound to the chest. You should suspect:
A. Hemothorax only
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Tension pneumothorax
,D. Flail chest
E. Cardiac tamponade
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tension pneumothorax
EXPERT RATIONALE: Absent breath sounds on one side following penetrating chest
trauma, combined with respiratory distress, strongly suggests tension pneumothorax.
This is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate needle decompression.
3. Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequate CPR
quality?
A. Visible chest rise
B. Patient skin color improvement
C. End-tidal CO2 reading of ≥10 mmHg
D. Carotid pulse felt during compressions
E. Pupillary response
CORRECT ANSWER: C. End-tidal CO2 reading of ≥10 mmHg
EXPERT RATIONALE: ETCO2 monitoring provides the most objective, real-time feedback
on CPR quality. A reading of ≥10 mmHg suggests adequate perfusion during
resuscitation efforts.
4. You respond to a call for a 67-year-old male complaining of crushing chest
pain radiating to his left arm. His BP is 142/88, HR 98, RR 18. What is your
PRIORITY intervention?
A. Establish IV access and give normal saline bolus
B. Administer oxygen, obtain 12-lead ECG, give aspirin
C. Perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment
D. Administer nitroglycerin immediately without further assessment
,E. Transport rapidly without further intervention
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Administer oxygen, obtain 12-lead ECG, give aspirin
EXPERT RATIONALE: For suspected acute MI, the priority is oxygen supplementation,
rapid 12-lead ECG acquisition to identify STEMI, and aspirin administration to prevent
further clot formation. These are foundational ACS management steps.
5. When ventilating an apneic adult patient with a BVM, what is the correct
ventilation rate?
A. 6–8 breaths per minute
B. 10–12 breaths per minute
C. 14–16 breaths per minute
D. 18–20 breaths per minute
E. 20–24 breaths per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 10–12 breaths per minute
EXPERT RATIONALE: The recommended BVM ventilation rate for an apneic adult is one
breath every 5–6 seconds (10–12/min). Over-ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure
and reduces venous return, decreasing cardiac output.
6. A patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3. This indicates:
A. Mild head injury
B. Moderate neurological impairment
C. The patient is awake and oriented
D. The lowest possible score, indicating deep unresponsiveness
E. Moderate head injury with verbal responses
CORRECT ANSWER: D. The lowest possible score, indicating deep
unresponsiveness
, EXPERT RATIONALE: The GCS ranges from 3–15. A score of 3 means no eye opening, no
verbal response, and no motor response — the minimum score, indicating complete
unresponsiveness.
7. Which of the following patients requires the MOST URGENT transport?
A. A 45-year-old with mild ankle sprain and stable vitals
B. A 30-year-old with nausea and normal BP
C. A 25-year-old with GCS of 8 and declining mental status
D. A 60-year-old with a rash and normal vitals
E. A 55-year-old with resolved chest pain
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A 25-year-old with GCS of 8 and declining mental
status
EXPERT RATIONALE: A GCS of 8 or below with deterioration suggests severe neurological
compromise. This patient needs immediate airway management and rapid transport to
a trauma center.
8. During a primary assessment, you note a patient has a patent airway,
adequate breathing, and a radial pulse. Your NEXT step is:
A. Obtain a full set of vital signs
B. Perform a secondary assessment
C. Control major bleeding
D. Obtain a SAMPLE history
E. Apply a cervical collar
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Control major bleeding
EXPERT RATIONALE: The primary assessment follows the ABCDE approach — Airway,
Breathing, Circulation (which includes controlling major hemorrhage), Disability, and
