ASSESSMENT EXAM 2026 UPDATED
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
DETAILED ELABORATED SOLUTIONS | FULLY
SOLVED | VERIFIED VERSION
• This document contains 200 fully solved Shadow Health Comprehensive
Assessment exam questions with verified answers and detailed EXPERT
RATIONALE to guide your understanding.
• Use this material by reading each question carefully, attempting your answer first,
then checking the highlighted correct option and EXPERT RATIONALE to reinforce
your clinical reasoning.
1. During a comprehensive health assessment, which action should the nurse
perform first?
A. Obtain vital signs
B. Review the patient's medical history
C. Establish rapport and introduce yourself
D. Perform a head-to-toe physical examination
E. Document findings in the electronic health record
C. Establish rapport and introduce yourself
EXPERT RATIONALE: Establishing rapport and introducing yourself is the first step in any
patient interaction. It builds trust, reduces anxiety, and creates a therapeutic
relationship necessary for accurate data collection.
2. When assessing a patient's chief complaint, the nurse should use which
type of questioning technique initially?
A. Closed-ended questions to gather specific data
,B. Leading questions to direct the patient
C. Open-ended questions to allow the patient to describe symptoms freely
D. Multiple questions simultaneously to save time
E. Yes or no questions for clarity
C. Open-ended questions to allow the patient to describe symptoms freely
EXPERT RATIONALE: Open-ended questions encourage patients to describe their
symptoms in their own words, providing richer, more complete data and preventing the
nurse from inadvertently leading the patient toward specific answers.
3. A nurse is assessing a patient's pain. Which mnemonic is most commonly
used to fully evaluate a pain complaint?
A. ABCDE
B. SAMPLE
C. OLDCARTS
D. PQRST only
E. SBAR
C. OLDCARTS
EXPERT RATIONALE: OLDCARTS stands for Onset, Location, Duration, Character,
Aggravating factors, Relieving factors, Timing, and Severity. It provides a comprehensive
framework for evaluating any symptom, especially pain.
4. When documenting the history of present illness (HPI), which component
describes what makes the symptom worse or better?
A. Timing
B. Character
C. Severity
,D. Aggravating and relieving factors
E. Onset
D. Aggravating and relieving factors
EXPERT RATIONALE: Aggravating and relieving factors identify what worsens or
improves symptoms, helping narrow the differential diagnosis and guide treatment
planning.
5. During the review of systems, a patient reports dyspnea on exertion. This
symptom belongs to which system?
A. Gastrointestinal
B. Musculoskeletal
C. Cardiovascular/Respiratory
D. Neurological
E. Integumentary
C. Cardiovascular/Respiratory
EXPERT RATIONALE: Dyspnea on exertion is a cardinal symptom of both cardiovascular
and respiratory systems, indicating reduced cardiac output or impaired gas exchange
during physical activity.
6. A nurse assesses a patient's blood pressure at 148/94 mmHg on two
separate occasions. According to JNC guidelines, how should this be
classified?
A. Normal blood pressure
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Stage 1 hypertension
D. Stage 2 hypertension
, E. Hypertensive urgency
D. Stage 2 hypertension
EXPERT RATIONALE: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, Stage 2 hypertension is
defined as systolic ≥140 mmHg or diastolic ≥90 mmHg. A reading of 148/94 meets this
criterion.
7. When measuring blood pressure, which site is considered the standard for
initial assessment?
A. Radial artery
B. Femoral artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Popliteal artery
E. Dorsalis pedis
C. Brachial artery
EXPERT RATIONALE: The brachial artery in the antecubital fossa is the standard site for
blood pressure measurement as it is most accessible, at heart level, and produces the
most reliable Korotkoff sounds.
8. What is the normal adult respiratory rate range?
A. 8–10 breaths per minute
B. 12–20 breaths per minute
C. 20–30 breaths per minute
D. 25–35 breaths per minute
E. 10–14 breaths per minute
B. 12–20 breaths per minute