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NURSING 326 PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING TESTS 1&2 FALL 2026 | Test Bank | Grade A+ | Complete Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass NURSING 326 Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing Tests 1 and 2 on your first attempt with this complete Fall 2026 test bank featuring Grade A+ verified questions and answers. This A+ Graded resource contains complete test bank questions and verified answers covering all key psychiatric mental health nursing content areas including **foundations of psychiatric mental health nursing (therapeutic relationship phases: pre-orientation, orientation, working, termination; therapeutic communication techniques: active listening, clarifying, focusing, restating, reflecting, exploring, validating, summarizing; nontherapeutic communication: advising, agreeing/disagreeing, belittling, challenging, defending, interpreting, probing, reassuring, rejecting), psychiatric assessment (mental status examination MSE: appearance, behavior, speech, mood/affect, thought process/content, perceptual disturbances, cognition (alertness, orientation, memory, concentration, abstract thinking), insight, judgement; suicide risk assessment (SAD PERSONS scale, Columbia-Suicide Severity Rating Scale C-SSRS), violence risk assessment, self-harm assessment, screening tools: PHQ-9, GAD-7, PCL-5, CAGE-AID, AUDIT, DAST-10), therapeutic milieu and environmental safety (least restrictive environment, seclusion and restraints criteria, documentation requirements, debriefing post-restraint), ethical and legal issues (informed consent, involuntary commitment, mandated reporting (child/elder abuse, Tarasoff duty to protect, imminent danger), patient confidentiality HIPAA, exceptions to confidentiality (duty to warn, reportable communicable diseases, child/elder abuse, danger to self/others), patient rights (right to refuse treatment, right to least restrictive environment, right to confidentiality, right to participate in treatment planning), psychiatric advance directives), neurobiology of psychiatric disorders (neurotransmitters: dopamine (schizophrenia, addiction), serotonin (depression, anxiety, OCD), norepinephrine (depression, anxiety, PTSD), GABA (anxiety, seizures), glutamate (schizophrenia, mood disorders), acetylcholine (Alzheimer's, memory), neuroendocrine systems HPA axis in mood and anxiety disorders), class of psychotropic medications (antidepressants: SSRIs (fluoxetine, sertraline, escitalopram, paroxetine, citalopram), SNRIs (venlafaxine, duloxetine, desvenlafaxine), TCAs (amitriptyline, nortriptyline, imipramine), MAOIs (phenelzine, tranylcypromine, selegiline), atypical antidepressants (bupropion, mirtazapine, trazodone); adverse effects: serotonin syndrome (agitation, confusion, tachycardia, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, shivering, muscle rigidity), risk factors, interventions, discontinuation syndrome; black box warning for suicidality in children/adolescents/young adults; antipsychotics: first-generation (haloperidol, fluprazine, thiothixene, chlorpromazine) adverse effects: EPS (pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, dystonia, tardive dyskinesia), neuroleptic malignant syndrome NMS (fever, rigidity, altered mental status, autonomic instability, elevated CK), treatment: dantrolene or bromocriptine, ABCS: airway, cooling, bromocriptine, supportive care; second-generation/atypical (clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, ziprasidone, aripiprazole, paliperidone, lurasidone, asenapine, brexpiprazole, cariprazine) adverse effects: metabolic syndrome (weight gain, hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia), EKG monitoring for QT prolongation, agranulocytosis with clozapine (REMS program, absolute neutrophil count monitoring); mood stabilizers: lithium (therapeutic level 0.6-1.2 mEq/L acute, 0.6-0.8 mEq/L maintenance; side effects: polyuria/polydipsia, tremor, weight gain, cognitive dulling, hypothyroidism, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus; toxicity: 1.5 mEq/L nausea vomiting diarrhea drowsiness tremor ataxia; severe 2.0-2.5 mEq/L seizures coma death; treatment: hemodialysis; valproate/divalproex (therapeutic level 50-125 mcg/mL; side effects: weight gain, sedation, tremor, alopecia, thrombocytopenia, liver toxicity, teratogenic neural tube defects) monitoring LFTs CBC ammonia; carbamazepine, lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine; anxiolytics: benzodiazepines (alprazolam, lorazepam, clonazepam, diazepam) side effects: sedation, tolerance, dependence, withdrawal; risk of falls in elderly, abuse potential; buspirone (non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic, no abuse potential, delayed onset 2-4 weeks); stimulants for ADHD (methylphenidate, amphetamine salts, lisdexamfetamine); management of psychiatric disorders: schizophrenia (positive symptoms: hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech; negative symptoms: flat affect, alogia, avolition, anhedonia, asociality; cognitive symptoms), schizoaffective disorder, schizophreniform disorder, brief psychotic disorder, delusional disorder, first-episode psychosis interventions, relapse prevention; depressive disorders (major depressive disorder MDD: SIGECAPS: sleep, interest, guilt, energy, concentration, appetite, psychomotor, suicidality, treatment: psychotherapy CBT, IPT, behavioral activation, pharmacotherapy SSRIs first-line, ECT for severe treatment-resistant or catatonic depression, TMS, VNS), persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), premenstrual dysphoric disorder PMDD, disruptive mood dysregulation disorder DMDD in children; bipolar disorders (bipolar I: manic episode ≥7 days; bipolar II: hypomanic episode + major depressive episode; cyclothymic disorder; acute mania treatment: mood stabilizers lithium valproate carbamazepine, second-generation antipsychotics (risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine), benzodiazepines for agitation; bipolar depression treatment: quetiapine, lurasidone, lamotrigine, asenapine; avoid antidepressants monotherapy due to risk of mood switch; maintenance treatment lithium first-line; SAD PERSONS scale suicide risk in bipolar; anxiety disorders: generalized anxiety disorder GAD (excessive worry 6 months, three or more symptoms: restlessness, fatigue, concentration, irritability, muscle tension, sleep disturbance; treatment: SSRIs SNRIs first-line, buspirone, CBT), panic disorder (recurrent unexpected panic attacks, persistent concern about attacks, avoidance; treatment SSRIs SNRIs, benzodiazepines short-term, CBT exposure therapy), social anxiety disorder (social phobia), agoraphobia, separation anxiety disorder, selective mutism, specific phobias; PTSD DSM-5-TR criteria (exposure to traumatic event, intrusion symptoms, avoidance, negative alterations in mood/cognition, alterations in arousal/reactivity, duration 1 month, functional impairment; treatment: first-line SSRIs sertraline paroxetine fluoxetine, SNRIs venlafaxine, trauma-focused CBT, prolonged exposure therapy, EMDR, prazosin for nightmares), acute stress disorder; obsessive-compulsive disorder OCD (obsessions recurring thoughts impulses images, compulsions repetitive behaviors or mental acts, insight varies; treatment: SSRIs high-dose, clomipramine (TCA), CBT with ERP exposure response prevention), body dysmorphic disorder, hoarding disorder, trichotillomania, excoriation disorder; substance-related and addictive disorders (alcohol use disorder: CAGE questionnaire, AUDIT, CIWA-Ar for withdrawal, alcohol withdrawal protocol: benzodiazepines, thiamine and multivitamins to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome; opioid use disorder: methadone, buprenorphine/naloxone (Suboxone), naltrexone; stimulant use disorder: behavioral interventions, no FDA-approved pharmacotherapy; tobacco use disorder: nicotine replacement therapy NRT, bupropion, varenicline), eating disorders (anorexia nervosa: restriction of intake, intense fear of weight gain, body image disturbance, amenorrhea; refeeding syndrome risk, medical stabilization, family-based therapy; bulimia nervosa: binge eating with compensatory behaviors (vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, excessive exercise) normal weight, electrolyte abnormalities, dental erosion, parotid enlargement; treatment CBT, SSRIs; binge-eating disorder: binge eating without compensatory behaviors, treatment CBT, lisdexamfetamine; personality disorders: Cluster A (paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal) odd/eccentric; Cluster B (antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic) dramatic/emotional; Cluster C (avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive) anxious/fearful, dialectical behavior therapy DBT for borderline personality disorder; cognitive disorders: delirium (acute onset, fluctuating course, inattention, disorganized thinking, reversible cause, treatment: identify underlying cause, safety precautions, low-dose haloperidol for agitation, avoid benzodiazepines), neurocognitive disorders major/mild (Alzheimer's disease: progressive memory loss executive dysfunction apraxia agnosia aphasia, cholinesterase inhibitors donepezil rivastigmine galantamine, NMDA antagonist memantine, behavioral symptoms management; vascular dementia, Lewy body dementia, frontotemporal dementia, traumatic brain injury; childhood disorders: ADHD (inattention, hyperactivity-impulsivity, treatment stimulants first-line), autism spectrum disorder (social communication deficits, restricted/repetitive behaviors), oppositional defiant disorder, conduct disorder, nursing process in psychiatric care: assessment, diagnosis (NANDA-I psychiatric nursing diagnoses: risk for self-harm, impaired social interaction, disturbed thought process, chronic low self-esteem, ineffective coping, anxiety, hopelessness, powerlessness), planning, implementation, evaluation, crisis intervention (ABCDE: Assessment, Basic needs, Communication/Collaboration, De-escalation, Evaluation), de-escalation techniques (respect personal space, do not provoke, establish verbal contact, be concise, identify wants/needs, listen closely, agree or agree to disagree, lay down the law, offer choices, debrief), management of aggressive/violent behavior (PRN medications, seclusion/restraints protocols, least restrictive alternatives first), suicide prevention and postvention (safety planning, means restriction, no-harm contracts controversial, therapeutic communication, suicide precautions: 1:1 observation, environment safety, remove ligature points and sharps), grief and loss (normal grief vs prolonged grief disorder/complicated grief, Kubler-Ross stages of dying, nursing interventions for grieving patient and family), end-of-life care in psychiatric settings, trauma-informed care principles (safety, trustworthiness, peer support, collaboration, empowerment, cultural/historical/gender issues), cultural competence in psychiatric nursing (cultural formulation interview, understanding cultural variations in expressing distress and symptoms, culturally appropriate interventions, Stigma of mental illness across cultural groups, health literacy, language barriers, use of interpreters), community mental health nursing (case management, assertive community treatment ACT team, partial hospitalization programs, intensive outpatient programs, psychiatric rehabilitation, Supported employment and housing, medication monitoring in community settings, home visits), psychiatric advance directives, recovery-oriented care (hope, person-first language, shared decision-making, strengths-based approach, peer support services), evidence-based practice in psychiatric nursing, and NCLEX-style questions for psychiatric nursing. Perfect for nursing students completing NURSING 326 Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing Tests 1 and 2. With our Pass Guarantee, you can confidently achieve a Grade A+ in Fall 2026. Download your complete NURSING 326 Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing Tests 1 & 2 Fall 2026 Test Bank Grade A+ instantly!

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NURSING 326 PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH
NURSING TESTS 1&2 FALL 2026 | Test Bank |
Grade A+ | Complete Q&A | Pass Guaranteed -
A+ Graded

[TEST 1 - FOUNDATIONS & THERAPEUTIC MODALITIES (Q1-50)]


[Section 1A: Therapeutic Communication & Nurse-Patient Relationship (Q1-15)]


Q1. A 28-year-old client with major depressive disorder states, "I don't see the point in
anything anymore. Nothing matters." Which therapeutic response by the nurse
demonstrates the most effective use of active listening?

A. "You have so much to live for. Your family loves you, and you have a good job."
B. "It sounds like you're feeling hopeless right now. Can you tell me more about that?"
C. "Have you tried going for a walk or doing something fun to cheer yourself up?"
D. "Many people feel this way when they're depressed, but things will get better with
time."

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B uses reflection and open-ended questioning, which are core
therapeutic communication techniques that validate the client's feelings and encourage
further expression. Option A offers false reassurance and approval, which are
nontherapeutic. Option C minimizes the client's experience and offers simplistic
solutions. Option D provides false reassurance and dismisses the client's current
emotional state. Correct Answer: B




Q2. During the orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship, a client with
schizophrenia asks, "Are you married? Do you have children?" Which response best
maintains therapeutic boundaries while preserving the therapeutic alliance?

,A. "Yes, I am married with two children. Why do you ask?"
B. "I prefer to keep my personal life private. Let's focus on how you're doing today."
C. "My personal life isn't relevant to your care, but I understand you might be curious.
What would knowing that help you with?"
D. "That's not something I discuss with patients. Let's talk about your treatment plan
instead."

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Option C acknowledges the client's curiosity without self-disclosure,
redirects to the client's needs, and explores the underlying meaning of the question—
maintaining boundaries therapeutically. Option A involves inappropriate self-
disclosure. Option B is abrupt and may seem dismissive. Option D is defensive and
closes communication. Correct Answer: C




Q3. A client with borderline personality disorder becomes angry and states, "You're just
like every other nurse—nobody really cares about me." Which response demonstrates
the most effective use of the therapeutic communication technique of setting limits?

A. "That's not fair. I've been here for you all shift."
B. "I understand you're upset, but I won't accept being spoken to that way. I'm here to
help you, and I need respectful communication to do that."
C. "You must be having a difficult time. Would you like to talk about your feelings?"
D. "Maybe you should take a PRN medication and rest for a while."

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B clearly sets behavioral limits while maintaining a caring stance and
explaining the rationale—essential for clients with BPD who need consistent
boundaries. Option A is defensive and nontherapeutic. Option C ignores the
inappropriate behavior and may reinforce manipulation. Option D avoids addressing
the behavior and uses chemical restraint inappropriately. Correct Answer: B

,Q4. A nurse is working with a client who has been silent for 10 minutes during a
therapy session. The client stares at the floor and fidgets with their hands. Which
nonverbal communication observation should the nurse prioritize in formulating the
next therapeutic intervention?

A. The client's silence indicates resistance and should be challenged directly.
B. The client's fidgeting and gaze avoidance suggest anxiety; the nurse should provide
reassurance and allow more time.
C. The client is being manipulative by refusing to participate in the session.
D. The nurse should immediately interpret the silence as a sign of depression and
document it.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nonverbal cues (fidgeting, gaze avoidance) typically indicate anxiety or
discomfort rather than resistance or manipulation. Providing reassurance and allowing
time respects the client's pace and reduces anxiety. Option A misinterprets silence as
resistance. Option C incorrectly labels the behavior as manipulative. Option D makes an
unsubstantiated diagnostic assumption. Correct Answer: B




Q5. During a group therapy session, a client with bipolar disorder in a manic episode
dominates the conversation, interrupts others, and makes inappropriate jokes. Which
nursing intervention best maintains the therapeutic milieu?

A. Ask the client to leave the group session immediately.
B. Ignore the behavior to avoid reinforcing it with attention.
C. "I notice you're sharing a lot today. Let's hear from someone who hasn't had a chance
to speak. [Client name], what are your thoughts?"
D. Privately tell the client after the group that their behavior was inappropriate.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Option C redirects the client in the moment, validates their participation, and
involves other group members—maintaining group dynamics therapeutically. Option A
is punitive and excludes the client. Option B allows the behavior to disrupt others.
Option D delays intervention and misses the opportunity to model appropriate group
behavior in real-time. Correct Answer: C

, Q6. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder states, "I keep having these nightmares
where I'm back in the war. I wake up sweating and can't go back to sleep." Which
therapeutic response demonstrates empathy and encourages further exploration?

A. "At least you made it home safely. Many soldiers didn't have that chance."
B. "Those nightmares must be terrifying. It sounds like you're reliving traumatic
experiences. How are you coping during the day?"
C. "Have you tried keeping a dream journal to analyze what the nightmares mean?"
D. "Nightmares are common with PTSD. Your doctor can prescribe something to help
you sleep."

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B demonstrates empathy through reflection, validates the traumatic
nature of the experience, and explores functional impact—core therapeutic
communication skills. Option A minimizes the experience with "at least" (false
reassurance). Option C offers a premature cognitive intervention. Option D provides
medical advice and closes emotional exploration. Correct Answer: B




Q7. A nurse is terminating the therapeutic relationship with a client who has completed
a successful course of treatment for panic disorder. During the final session, the client
becomes tearful and says, "I don't know how I'll manage without you." Which response
best facilitates healthy closure?

A. "You'll be fine. You have all the tools you need now."
B. "It's normal to feel sad about ending our work together. We've accomplished a lot,
and I'm confident in your ability to use the skills you've learned. Let's review your
coping strategies one more time."
C. "We can schedule occasional check-in sessions if that would make you feel better."
D. "You shouldn't be dependent on me. That's not healthy."

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B normalizes the client's feelings, reinforces accomplishments,
reviews coping strategies, and maintains boundaries—facilitating healthy termination.

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