EXAM 2026-2027 ACTUAL COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED
SUCCESS!! | BRAND NEW!! JUST RELEASED!!
24-year-old G2P1 woman at 30 weeks gestation is sensitized
to the D antigen. She is Rh negative and received RhoGAM
during her first delivery one year ago. Which of the following
statements best explains these findings? A. The patient
initiated her prenatal care late during the present pregnancy
B. The patient was sensitized during the previous pregnancy by
receiving the
RhoGAM
C. Current pregnancy is too close to the first pregnancy
D. The amount of fetal maternal hemorrhage was more than
previously estimated
E. The cause is most likely idiopathic in this case - ANSWER-D.
The amount of fetal maternal hemorrhage was more than
previously estimated
n rare occasion, an Rh-negative woman will subsequently be
sensitized, despite prophylaxis. The protection afforded by a
standard RhoGAM administration is dose-dependent. One dose
will prevent Rh sensitization to an exposure of as much as 30
cc of Rh-positive red blood cells. With greater exposure, there
is only partial protection and Rh sensitization may occur as a
,result of failure to diagnose massive transplacental
hemorrhage. Alternatively, an Rh-negative woman may be
sensitized in the latter part of pregnancy or soon after delivery
before the post-delivery prophylaxis dose is given. Inadvertent
maternal transfusion of Rh-positive blood may result in Rh
sensitization to the D or another red blood cell antigen. Patients
may become sensitized if they do not receive RhoGAM
following an episode of antenatal bleeding or after an invasive
procedure, such as amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling.
In addition, RhoGAM only confers protection against the D
antigen. Therefore, despite administration of RhoGAM to Rh-
negative patients, they may still become sensitized to other red
blood cell antigens. Pregnancy spacing does not affect the
presence of the antibody.
A 24-year-old G4P0 presents to your office at seven weeks
gestation after two days of bleeding and cramping. She thinks
that she miscarried at home and did not bring in the tissue for
pathologic evaluation. What is the karyotype most likely to be
found on chromosomal analysis?
A. Turner Syndrome (45, X)
B. Autosomal Trisomy
C.
Monoploidy
D.
Triploidy
E. Tetraploidy - ANSWER-B. Autosomal
Trisomy
,Autosomal trisomy is the most common abnormal karyotype
encountered in spontaneous abortuses, accounting for
approximately 40-50% of cases. The most common
chromosomal aneuploidy noted in abortuses is Trisomy 16.
Triploidy accounts for approximately 15%, and tetraploidy for
5% of cases. Monosomy X (45X, 0) is seen in 15-25% of losses.
A 34-year-old G1 is in a motor vehicle accident. While in the
emergency department, the doctors order multiple x-rays to
evaluate her injuries. At what gestational age would the fetus
be most susceptible to developing mental retardation with
sufficient doses of radiation?
A. 0-7 weeks
B. 8-15 weeks
C. 16-25 weeks
D. 26-30 weeks
E. 31-35 weeks - ANSWER-8-15 weeks
A 21-year-old G1 presents to labor and delivery at 39 weeks
gestation with a chief complaint of decreased fetal movement
over the last two days. An ultrasound shows a fetus with
biometry consistent with 34 weeks gestation with no cardiac
activity. The head circumference and biparietal diameter are
consistent with 37 weeks and the abdominal circumference,
femur and humerus lengths are all lagging by approximately
five weeks. The amniotic fluid volume is slightly decreased. No
other abnormalities are identified. The patient's medical history
is notable for a deep venous thrombosis which she had three
years ago while she was using oral contraceptives. She had a
, reassuring quad screen. She denies any history of fever or viral
illnesses during the pregnancy. She works as a preschool
teacher. The patient had a fetal ultrasound at 20 weeks
gestation. At that time all of the fetal anatomy was well-
visualized and no abnormali - ANSWER-E. Factor V Leiden
mutation
This patient is most likely to have the autosomal dominant
Factor V Leiden (FVL) mutation based on her history. FVL is the
most common inherited thrombophilic disorder affecting
approximately 5% of Caucasian women in the United States. It
is a point mutation which alters factor V making it resistant to
inactivation by protein C. The thrombophilic effect of a FVL
mutation has been clearly established. Heterozygosity for FVL
is associated with a five to ten-fold increased risk of
thrombosis, while homozygosity is associated with an 80-fold
increased risk. The FVL mutation is associated with obstetric
complications including stillbirth, preeclampsia, placental
abruption and IUGR. Fetuses with Trisomy 18 are likely to have
congenital anomalies that are detectable on prenatal
ultrasound. Over 90% of cases of trisomy 18 may be detected
with the quad screen. A congenital parvovirus infection
associated with a fetal demise would likely cause hydrops in
the fetus which would be identified on ultrasound. Although
poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and cord accidents are
associated with fetal demise, they are not the most likely
etiologies in this patient whose presentation is classic for the
FVL mutation.