BIOS 251 Anatomy and Physiology I — Chamberlain 2026/2027
CHAMBERLAIN BIOS 251 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY I EXAMINATION — 2026/2027
75 Questions | Anatomy and Physiology I with Lab | HAPS-Aligned
Total Questions: 75 | Testing Time: 90–120 Minutes | Passing Score: 75–80%
Instructions: This examination consists of 75 multiple-choice questions distributed across eight content
domains aligned with the Human Anatomy and Physiology Society (HAPS) learning outcomes. Each
question has four answer options (A, B, C, D). Select the single best answer for each question. The exam
covers anatomical terminology, basic chemistry, cell biology, histology, the integumentary system, the
skeletal system, joints, and the muscular system. Clinical application questions are integrated throughout.
Read each question carefully before responding.
Domain: Introduction to Anatomy & Physiology
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the difference between anatomy and
physiology?
A. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body functions.
B. Anatomy is the study of body functions, and physiology is the study of body structures.
C. Anatomy focuses on disease processes, while physiology focuses on cellular metabolism.
D. Anatomy and physiology are identical fields of study with different terminology.
Correct Answer: A. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of
body functions.
Rationale: Anatomy is the science of body structure and the relationships among structures, whereas
physiology is the science of body function—how body structures work together to maintain life. This
fundamental distinction is the cornerstone of all biomedical sciences.
Question 2. A surgeon makes an incision along the midline of the abdomen, dividing the
body into equal left and right halves. Through which plane was this incision made?
A. Frontal (coronal) plane
B. Transverse (horizontal) plane
C. Sagittal (midsagittal) plane
D. Oblique plane
Correct Answer: C. Sagittal (midsagittal) plane
Rationale: A sagittal plane divides the body into left and right portions. When the cut is made exactly
along the midline, producing equal halves, it is specifically called a midsagittal (median) plane. The
frontal plane divides anterior from posterior, and the transverse plane divides superior from inferior.
Question 3. The term "proximal" is used to describe a body part that is:
A. Farther from the point of attachment to the trunk.
B. Closer to the midline of the body.
C. Closer to the point of attachment to the trunk or the origin of a structure.
D. Located on the anterior surface of the body.
Correct Answer: C. Closer to the point of attachment to the trunk or the origin of a structure.
Rationale: "Proximal" means closer to the point of attachment or origin. In the limbs, it describes a
position nearer to the trunk (e.g., the elbow is proximal to the wrist). "Distal" is its opposite, meaning
farther from the attachment point.
Question 4. Which body cavity contains the lungs and heart, and is lined by serous
membranes?
A. Abdominopelvic cavity
B. Dorsal body cavity
C. Ventral body cavity — specifically the thoracic cavity
D. Cranial cavity
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, BIOS 251 Anatomy and Physiology I — Chamberlain 2026/2027
Correct Answer: C. Ventral body cavity — specifically the thoracic cavity
Rationale: The thoracic cavity is a subdivision of the ventral body cavity. It contains the lungs (in the
pleural cavities) and the heart (in the pericardial cavity), both lined by serous membranes — the pleura
and pericardium, respectively.
Question 5. The parietal layer of a serous membrane:
A. Covers the surface of organs within the body cavity.
B. Lines the walls of the body cavity.
C. Is found only in the dorsal body cavity.
D. Produces synovial fluid for joint lubrication.
Correct Answer: B. Lines the walls of the body cavity.
Rationale: Serous membranes have two layers: the parietal layer lines the internal walls of the body
cavity, and the visceral layer covers the external surface of organs within that cavity. The thin fluid
between them (serous fluid) reduces friction from organ movement.
Question 6. Which of the following is an example of a negative feedback mechanism?
A. Blood clotting cascade during hemorrhage
B. Uterine contractions during childbirth
C. Thermoregulation via sweating and shivering
D. Platelet plug formation at a wound site
Correct Answer: C. Thermoregulation via sweating and shivering
Rationale: Negative feedback reverses a change in condition to restore homeostasis. During
thermoregulation, elevated body temperature stimulates sweat production and vasodilation to release
heat, while decreased temperature triggers shivering and vasoconstriction to conserve heat. Blood
clotting and childbirth are examples of positive feedback.
Question 7. The right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen contains which of the following
organs?
A. Sigmoid colon and left ovary
B. Liver and gallbladder
C. Stomach and spleen
D. Appendix and cecum
Correct Answer: B. Liver and gallbladder
Rationale: The abdomen is divided into four quadrants by a vertical and horizontal line through the
umbilicus. The right upper quadrant (RUQ) contains the liver, gallbladder, portions of the large intestine,
and the right kidney. The stomach and spleen are in the left upper quadrant.
Question 8. In a homeostatic feedback loop, the component that detects changes in the
internal environment and sends information to the control center is called the:
A. Effector
B. Receptor (sensor)
C. Control center (integrator)
D. Set point
Correct Answer: B. Receptor (sensor)
Rationale: A feedback loop has three components: the receptor (sensor) monitors the variable and sends
input to the control center; the control center compares the input against the set point and sends output to
the effector; the effector carries out the response to restore the variable to its normal range.
Question 9. Which directional term describes the position of the nose relative to the ears?
A. Lateral
B. Posterior
C. Medial
D. Inferior
Correct Answer: C. Medial
Rationale: "Medial" means closer to the midline of the body. The nose is located along the body's midline,
making it medial to the ears, which are positioned on the lateral (outer) aspects of the head.
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, BIOS 251 Anatomy and Physiology I — Chamberlain 2026/2027
Question 10. Which of the following best describes a positive feedback loop?
A. It reverses a change in a controlled condition to maintain homeostasis.
B. It enhances or amplifies the initial change, driving the process to completion.
C. It maintains blood glucose levels within a narrow range after a meal.
D. It decreases the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone when levels are high.
Correct Answer: B. It enhances or amplifies the initial change, driving the process to
completion.
Rationale: Positive feedback amplifies the initial stimulus, pushing the system further from its starting
state until an external event or conclusion interrupts the cycle. Classic examples include blood clotting
(amplification of coagulation factors), uterine contractions during labor (oxytocin cascade), and the
action potential upstroke.
Domain: Basic Chemistry & Biochemistry
Question 11. The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of:
A. Neutrons in the nucleus.
B. Protons in the nucleus.
C. Electrons orbiting the nucleus.
D. Protons and neutrons combined.
Correct Answer: B. Protons in the nucleus.
Rationale: The atomic number is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom and uniquely
identifies each element. In a neutral atom, the number of electrons equals the number of protons, but the
atomic number is defined specifically by the proton count.
Question 12. Which type of chemical bond involves the complete transfer of electrons from
one atom to another, resulting in the formation of ions?
A. Covalent bond
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Ionic bond
D. Peptide bond
Correct Answer: C. Ionic bond
Rationale: An ionic bond forms when one atom transfers one or more electrons to another atom, creating
oppositely charged ions (cations and anions) that are held together by electrostatic attraction. Sodium
chloride (NaCl) is a classic example where Na donates an electron to Cl.
Question 13. A solution with a pH of 3 is how many times more acidic than a solution with a
pH of 6?
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 100 times
D. 1,000 times
Correct Answer: D. 1,000 times
Rationale: The pH scale is logarithmic, meaning each whole number change represents a tenfold
difference in hydrogen ion concentration [H+]. A pH of 3 compared to pH 6 is a difference of 3 units, so
the solution is 10 × 10 × 10 = 1,000 times more acidic.
Question 14. Which organic macromolecule is the primary structural component of cell
membranes and includes molecules such as phospholipids and cholesterol?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Protein
C. Lipid
D. Nucleic acid
Correct Answer: C. Lipid
Rationale: Lipids are hydrophobic organic molecules that include triglycerides (energy storage),
phospholipids (cell membrane structure), and cholesterol (membrane fluidity and steroid hormone
precursor). The phospholipid bilayer is the fundamental structural element of all cell membranes.
3
CHAMBERLAIN BIOS 251 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY I EXAMINATION — 2026/2027
75 Questions | Anatomy and Physiology I with Lab | HAPS-Aligned
Total Questions: 75 | Testing Time: 90–120 Minutes | Passing Score: 75–80%
Instructions: This examination consists of 75 multiple-choice questions distributed across eight content
domains aligned with the Human Anatomy and Physiology Society (HAPS) learning outcomes. Each
question has four answer options (A, B, C, D). Select the single best answer for each question. The exam
covers anatomical terminology, basic chemistry, cell biology, histology, the integumentary system, the
skeletal system, joints, and the muscular system. Clinical application questions are integrated throughout.
Read each question carefully before responding.
Domain: Introduction to Anatomy & Physiology
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the difference between anatomy and
physiology?
A. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body functions.
B. Anatomy is the study of body functions, and physiology is the study of body structures.
C. Anatomy focuses on disease processes, while physiology focuses on cellular metabolism.
D. Anatomy and physiology are identical fields of study with different terminology.
Correct Answer: A. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of
body functions.
Rationale: Anatomy is the science of body structure and the relationships among structures, whereas
physiology is the science of body function—how body structures work together to maintain life. This
fundamental distinction is the cornerstone of all biomedical sciences.
Question 2. A surgeon makes an incision along the midline of the abdomen, dividing the
body into equal left and right halves. Through which plane was this incision made?
A. Frontal (coronal) plane
B. Transverse (horizontal) plane
C. Sagittal (midsagittal) plane
D. Oblique plane
Correct Answer: C. Sagittal (midsagittal) plane
Rationale: A sagittal plane divides the body into left and right portions. When the cut is made exactly
along the midline, producing equal halves, it is specifically called a midsagittal (median) plane. The
frontal plane divides anterior from posterior, and the transverse plane divides superior from inferior.
Question 3. The term "proximal" is used to describe a body part that is:
A. Farther from the point of attachment to the trunk.
B. Closer to the midline of the body.
C. Closer to the point of attachment to the trunk or the origin of a structure.
D. Located on the anterior surface of the body.
Correct Answer: C. Closer to the point of attachment to the trunk or the origin of a structure.
Rationale: "Proximal" means closer to the point of attachment or origin. In the limbs, it describes a
position nearer to the trunk (e.g., the elbow is proximal to the wrist). "Distal" is its opposite, meaning
farther from the attachment point.
Question 4. Which body cavity contains the lungs and heart, and is lined by serous
membranes?
A. Abdominopelvic cavity
B. Dorsal body cavity
C. Ventral body cavity — specifically the thoracic cavity
D. Cranial cavity
1
, BIOS 251 Anatomy and Physiology I — Chamberlain 2026/2027
Correct Answer: C. Ventral body cavity — specifically the thoracic cavity
Rationale: The thoracic cavity is a subdivision of the ventral body cavity. It contains the lungs (in the
pleural cavities) and the heart (in the pericardial cavity), both lined by serous membranes — the pleura
and pericardium, respectively.
Question 5. The parietal layer of a serous membrane:
A. Covers the surface of organs within the body cavity.
B. Lines the walls of the body cavity.
C. Is found only in the dorsal body cavity.
D. Produces synovial fluid for joint lubrication.
Correct Answer: B. Lines the walls of the body cavity.
Rationale: Serous membranes have two layers: the parietal layer lines the internal walls of the body
cavity, and the visceral layer covers the external surface of organs within that cavity. The thin fluid
between them (serous fluid) reduces friction from organ movement.
Question 6. Which of the following is an example of a negative feedback mechanism?
A. Blood clotting cascade during hemorrhage
B. Uterine contractions during childbirth
C. Thermoregulation via sweating and shivering
D. Platelet plug formation at a wound site
Correct Answer: C. Thermoregulation via sweating and shivering
Rationale: Negative feedback reverses a change in condition to restore homeostasis. During
thermoregulation, elevated body temperature stimulates sweat production and vasodilation to release
heat, while decreased temperature triggers shivering and vasoconstriction to conserve heat. Blood
clotting and childbirth are examples of positive feedback.
Question 7. The right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen contains which of the following
organs?
A. Sigmoid colon and left ovary
B. Liver and gallbladder
C. Stomach and spleen
D. Appendix and cecum
Correct Answer: B. Liver and gallbladder
Rationale: The abdomen is divided into four quadrants by a vertical and horizontal line through the
umbilicus. The right upper quadrant (RUQ) contains the liver, gallbladder, portions of the large intestine,
and the right kidney. The stomach and spleen are in the left upper quadrant.
Question 8. In a homeostatic feedback loop, the component that detects changes in the
internal environment and sends information to the control center is called the:
A. Effector
B. Receptor (sensor)
C. Control center (integrator)
D. Set point
Correct Answer: B. Receptor (sensor)
Rationale: A feedback loop has three components: the receptor (sensor) monitors the variable and sends
input to the control center; the control center compares the input against the set point and sends output to
the effector; the effector carries out the response to restore the variable to its normal range.
Question 9. Which directional term describes the position of the nose relative to the ears?
A. Lateral
B. Posterior
C. Medial
D. Inferior
Correct Answer: C. Medial
Rationale: "Medial" means closer to the midline of the body. The nose is located along the body's midline,
making it medial to the ears, which are positioned on the lateral (outer) aspects of the head.
2
, BIOS 251 Anatomy and Physiology I — Chamberlain 2026/2027
Question 10. Which of the following best describes a positive feedback loop?
A. It reverses a change in a controlled condition to maintain homeostasis.
B. It enhances or amplifies the initial change, driving the process to completion.
C. It maintains blood glucose levels within a narrow range after a meal.
D. It decreases the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone when levels are high.
Correct Answer: B. It enhances or amplifies the initial change, driving the process to
completion.
Rationale: Positive feedback amplifies the initial stimulus, pushing the system further from its starting
state until an external event or conclusion interrupts the cycle. Classic examples include blood clotting
(amplification of coagulation factors), uterine contractions during labor (oxytocin cascade), and the
action potential upstroke.
Domain: Basic Chemistry & Biochemistry
Question 11. The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of:
A. Neutrons in the nucleus.
B. Protons in the nucleus.
C. Electrons orbiting the nucleus.
D. Protons and neutrons combined.
Correct Answer: B. Protons in the nucleus.
Rationale: The atomic number is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom and uniquely
identifies each element. In a neutral atom, the number of electrons equals the number of protons, but the
atomic number is defined specifically by the proton count.
Question 12. Which type of chemical bond involves the complete transfer of electrons from
one atom to another, resulting in the formation of ions?
A. Covalent bond
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Ionic bond
D. Peptide bond
Correct Answer: C. Ionic bond
Rationale: An ionic bond forms when one atom transfers one or more electrons to another atom, creating
oppositely charged ions (cations and anions) that are held together by electrostatic attraction. Sodium
chloride (NaCl) is a classic example where Na donates an electron to Cl.
Question 13. A solution with a pH of 3 is how many times more acidic than a solution with a
pH of 6?
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 100 times
D. 1,000 times
Correct Answer: D. 1,000 times
Rationale: The pH scale is logarithmic, meaning each whole number change represents a tenfold
difference in hydrogen ion concentration [H+]. A pH of 3 compared to pH 6 is a difference of 3 units, so
the solution is 10 × 10 × 10 = 1,000 times more acidic.
Question 14. Which organic macromolecule is the primary structural component of cell
membranes and includes molecules such as phospholipids and cholesterol?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Protein
C. Lipid
D. Nucleic acid
Correct Answer: C. Lipid
Rationale: Lipids are hydrophobic organic molecules that include triglycerides (energy storage),
phospholipids (cell membrane structure), and cholesterol (membrane fluidity and steroid hormone
precursor). The phospholipid bilayer is the fundamental structural element of all cell membranes.
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