NR 500 PHARM FINAL QUIZ / NR500 PHARM FINAL QUIZ: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING

NR 500 PHARM FINAL QUIZ / NR500 PHARM FINAL QUIZ: LATEST,CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSINGQuestion 1. Question : Which of the following diabetic agents works by delaying the digestion of ingested carbohydrates, resulting in a smaller rise in blood glucose following a meal? Acarbose (Precose®) Pioglitazone (Actos®) Metformin (Glucophage®) Sufonylureas (Glipizide, glyburide) Question 2. Question : First-line therapy for a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is: Stimulants (Ritalin®, Dexedrine®, Concerta®...) Tricyclic antidepressants (desipramine, imipramine) Clonidine (Catapress®) Antipsychotics SSRIs (Prozac®, Paxil®, Zoloft®) Question 3. Question : Which of the following anticonvulsants can you potentially see large increases in serum drug concentrations with small increases in dose because of enzyme saturation? Carbamazepine (Tegretol®) Phenobarbital Phenytoin (Dilantin®) Gabapentin (Neurontin®) Question 4. Question : The medication with the longest half-life and duration of effect for the treatment of erectile dysfunction would be: Sidenafil Cialis Levitra Caverject Question 5. Question : Osteoporosis affects twice as many men as it does women. True False Question 6. Question : Contraindications for the use of Fosamax include all of the following: Hypocalcaemia Renal insufficiency Patients unable to stand or sit upright for 30-60 minutes All of the above Question 7. Question : All of the medications below can be used in the prevention of gout EXCEPT: Colchicine Probenecid (Benemid®) Allopurinol (Zyloprim®) None of the above, they can all be used in the prevention of gout Question 8. Question : Rational therapy for an uncomplicated, community-acquired UTI could include all of the following EXCEPT: Tetracyclines Oral cephalosporin (Keflex®) Aminopenicillin (amoxicillin, ampicillin) Sulfonamide (Bactrim® or Septra®) Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid®, Macrodantin®) Question 9. Question : Which natural remedy is used for aches and pains associated with osteoarthritis? DHEA Melatonin Glucosamine Coenzyme Q10 Question 10. Question : Cisipride (Propulsid®) is a prokinetic agent used for the treatment of GERD. What has limited its use? Potential for severe, life-threatening drug interactions Intolerable side effects Lack of effectiveness in relieving symptoms of GERD All of the above Question 11. Question : The most common menopause symptoms that women experience include: headaches, heart palpitations, redness and muscle weakness. True False Question 12. Question : Which of the following pregnancy categories would represent the safest option for a woman? X A B D Question 13. Question : All of the following statements are true about geriatric prescribing EXCEPT: Drugs eliminated by the kidney have higher plasma levels for equivalent dosing. Drugs eliminated by the kidney have less likelihood of toxicity. Drugs eliminated by the kidney require lower dosing to provide therapeutic effect. Drugs eliminated by the kidney include atenolol, lithium and digoxin. Question 14. Question : Appropriate therapy for a patient with stage I (mild) COPD would include: Beta-agonist therapy as needed Scheduled beta-agonist therapy Beta agonist therapy plus inhaled corticosteroids Oral corticosteroid therapy Question 15. Question : What is a reasonable treatment goal for patients with osteoporosis? Reduce fracture risk via nonpharmacologic treatment Increase bone mineral density to a T score of +5 Start the patient on a pharmacologic agent as soon as possible Points Received: 3 of 3 Comments: Question 16. Question : Which erectile dysfunction drug should be taken on an empty stomach for quicker results? Cialis Levitra Viagra None of the above Question 17. Question : Care must be used with buspirone (BusparÒ) when treating generalized anxiety, as the medication has the potential to produce dependence and abuse when used for extended periods of time. True False Question 18. Question : Rational treatment for a 6-year old child with suspected bacterial pharangitis would be: Erythromycin or penicillin A quinolone antibiotic Tetracycline Both a and c None of the above Question 19. Question : You have a patient on warfarin (Coumadin®). Which of the following situations could cause an ELEVATION in the patient’s INR? Adding a drug that is highly protein bound Increasing Vitamin K in the diet Adding a drug that inhibits the metabolism of warfarin All of the above Both a and c Question 20. Question : The following will be effective adjunctive treatment for osteoporosis for a patient on bisphosphonate therapy. Non-weight bearing exercise Calcium intake of 100 mg/ day Vitamin C supplement of 200 mg/ day Calcium 1200 mg/day and Vitamin D 40-800 IU/day Question 21. Question : Common side effects noted with the nitrates include all of the following EXCEPT: Headache Dizziness Facial flushing Reflux tachycardia Drowsiness Question 22. Question : Which of the following medications has been studied for both urinary incontinence and depression? Flomax Cymbalta Pseudoephedrine Detrol LA Question 23. Question : What is a disadvantage of the oral contraceptive Seasonale? Once monthly dosing 4 menstrual cycles per year Frequent break through bleeding Large capsule Question 24. Question : All NSAIDs are associated with similar risk for causing GI ulceration and bleeding. True False Question 25. Question : Which of the following are potential combinations for the treatment of H. pylori induced ulcers? A proton pump inhibitor (i.e. lansoprazole or omeprazole) plus amoxicillin plus clarithromycin An H-2 receptor antagonist (i.e. ranitidine or famotidine) plus metronidazole plus amoxicillin plus bismuth subsalicylate Sulcralfate (Carafate®) A proton pump inhibitior (i.e. omeprazole) plus H-2 receptor antagonist (i.e. ranitidine) Both a and b Question 26. Question : Which microorganism(s) are you likely to find in a patient suffering from pneumonia who is previously healthy and ambulatory? Pseudomonus Pneumococcus Mycoplasma Anaerobes Both b and c Question 27. Question : Which of the following is not an appropriate treatment option for mild to moderate pain? NSAIDs Morphine Tramadol (Ultram®) Acetaminophen Nonacetylated salicylates Question 28. Question : Which of the following urinary incontinence medications may have anticholinergic adverse effects? Oxybutynin Trospium Darifenacin Tolterodine All of the above Question 29. Question : Potential side effects of most “typical” or first generation antipsychotics include all of the following EXCEPT: EPS (extrapyramidal symptoms) Anticholinergic effects Orthostatic hypotension Agranulocytosis Temperature regulation disturbances Question 30. Question : All of the following are treatment options for osteoporosis EXCEPT: Alendronate (Fosamax) Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Teriparatide (Forteo) Corticosteroids (prednisone) None of the above, all are effective treatment options Question 31. Question : All of the following treatment options have been shown to decrease hip fractures, EXCEPT: Evista Forteo Calcimar Boniva Question 32. Question : By definition, an adverse drug reaction can include which of the following? Allergic hypersensitivity reaction Drug interaction Exaggerated drug response All of the above Question 33. Question : Which of the following is an effect of testosterone replacement in men? Weight loss Hypotension Increased libido Improvement of BPH symptoms Question 34. Question : All of the following are potential side effects from long-term steroid use EXCEPT: Increased bone density Electrolyte imbalances Thinning and bruising of the skin Weight gain Question 35. Question : Women are at an increased risk over males for osteoporosis because their peak bone mass is 10-30% less than males. True False Question 36. Question : You have a patient who is having problems with constipation. All of the following medications could be a potential cause EXCEPT: Amitriptyline (Elavil®) Verapamil (Calan®) Acetaminophen w/ codeine (Tylenol No. 3®) Captopril (Capoten®) None of the above Question 37. Question : Contraindications to the use of sumatriptan (Imitrex®) and other serotonin agonists include all of the following EXCEPT: Uncontrolled hypertension Cardiovascular disease Peptic ulcer disease Peripheral vascular disease Concurrent use of ergot alkaloids Question 38. Question : When prescribing anticonvulsants, it is important to keep in mind the potential for drug interactions. All of the following are SIGNIFICANT sources of drug interactions AMONG the anticonvulsants EXCEPT: Displacement of protein binding Competition for absorption from the gastrointestinal tract Inhibition of enzyme metabolism Induction of enzyme metabolism Question 39. Question : All of the following anticonvulsants are considered first-line therapy for the treatment of generalized, tonic-clonic seizures EXCEPT: Valproic acid (Depakote®, Depakene®) Carbamazepine (Tegretol®) Phenytoin (Dilantin®) Ethosuximide (Zarontin®) Question 40. Question : Which therapeutic options have been shown to decrease morbidity and mortality in patients with heart failure? Loop diuretic ACE inhibitors Hydralazine (Apresoline) + nitrate Digitalis Both b and c Question 41. Question : Ginger is an herb commonly used for nausea associated with motion sickness, pregnancy and chemotherapy. True False Question 42. Question : Which hormonal replacement drug is derived from pregnant horses’ urine? Cenestin Ogen Premarin Estratab Question 43. Question : Which condition is best described as a metabolic bone disease characterized by a decreased density of normally mineralized bone? Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) Osteoarthritis Osteoporosis Gout Question 44. Question : Disease modifying drugs such as hyroxychloroquine (Plaquenil®), methotrexate, azothioprine (Imuran®)... have been shown to alter the progression of osteoarthritis, and are now considered first line therapy. True False Question 45. Question : Which of the following class of diuretics is MOST effective at lowering blood pressure? Thiazide diuretics Loop diuretics Potassium-sparing diuretics All are equally effective Question 46. Question : Many narcotic pain relievers are marketed in combination with acetaminophen. What is the maximum safe daily dose of acetaminophen for patients? 4 grams per day 8 grams per day 10 grams per day 15 grams Question 47. Question : Which of the following medications works to relieve symptoms of BPH by decreasing the size of the prostate gland? Tamsulosin (Flomax®) Dutasteride (Avodart®) Vardenafil (Levitra®) Fluoxymesterone (Halotestin®) All of the above Question 48. Question : Antibiotics are the mainstay of therapy for the treatment of otitis media. Which of the following statements are TRUE with regard to adjunctive therapy? Antihistamines are effective at reducing the effusion that is sometimes present in otitis media. Acetaminophen or ibuprofen can be used to help reduce pain and fever often associated with infection. Systemic corticosteroids can be given to help reduce some of the inflammation and expedite clearance of the infection. Both b and c Question 49. Question : Sally has a history of breast cancer. Which contraceptive would represent the safest option for Sally? Ortho Tri-Cyclen LO Loestrin FE Seasonale Medroxyprogesterone Question 50. Question : Which of the following is true regarding the tricyclic antidepressants? The starting dose is often the same as the therapeutic dose Tricyclic antidepressants are associated with fewer side effects than select serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) A two week supply of the TCAs can be fatal in the event of an overdose They include paroxetine (Paxil®), Sertraline (Zoloft®), and Fluoxetine (Prozac®) They are not widely used because of potentially serious food-drug and drug-drug interactions