2026 ATI RN Comprehensive
Predictor 2026 Exam with NGN 150
Questions & Answers
EXAM
1. A nurse is assisting the provider with a lumbar puncture for
a client suspected of meningitis. Which position should the
nurse assist the client into?
A. Supine with legs extended
B. Head flexed to chest and knees drawn to abdomen
C. Prone with arms extended
D. High Fowler’s position
Answer: B.
Rationale: The fetal position (head and knees flexed) helps open
the intervertebral spaces, providing better access for needle
insertion.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with COPD whose oxygen
saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Encourage coughing
B. Notify the provider
C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
D. Obtain ABG results
,Answer: C.
Rationale: According to the ABCs of priority setting, airway and
breathing are the first concern. Hypoxemia with an SpO₂ of 88%
requires immediate supplemental oxygen.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about digoxin toxicity. Which
findings should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A. Bradycardia
B. Yellow-green halos
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Hypertension
E. Confusion
Answers: A, B, C, E.
Rationale: Classic signs of digoxin toxicity include GI upset
(nausea/vomiting), visual disturbances (yellow-green halos),
bradycardia, and neurological symptoms like confusion.
Hypertension is not associated.
4. A nurse is assessing a client receiving furosemide. Which
electrolyte imbalance is the client at greatest risk for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
,Answer: C.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic, which causes significant
potassium loss in urine, leading to hypokalemia.
5. (NGN Case Study) A 72-year-old male is admitted with
community-acquired pneumonia. History includes
hypertension, CKD stage 3, and gout. VS: T 38.9°C (102°F), HR
102, RR 24, BP 140/90, SpO₂ 88% on room air. The client is
confused and coughing productive yellow sputum.
Highlight the three assessment findings that require immediate
intervention.
A. Temperature 38.9°C
B. Heart rate 102 beats/min
C. Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min
D. Oxygen saturation 88%
E. Confusion
F. Productive cough
Answer: D, E. (Oxygen saturation 88% and confusion)
Rationale: An SpO₂ of 88% indicates hypoxemia requiring
immediate intervention. Confusion may be a sign of worsening
hypoxia or infection. The other findings, while abnormal, are not
immediately life-threatening.
6. A nurse is caring for a client in the PACU. Which of the
following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
, A. Bounding pulse
B. Oliguria
C. Hypertension
D. Tachycardia
Answer: B.
Rationale: Decreased cardiac output leads to reduced renal
perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria).
7. A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage after an
explosion. Which of the following clients should the nurse
identify as a priority?
A. A client with a minor laceration
B. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
C. A client who is walking and talking
D. A client with a simple fracture
Answer: B.
Rationale: In mass casualty triage, clients with life-threatening
injuries that have a high chance of survival (e.g., hypovolemic
shock) are given the highest priority.
8. A nurse is receiving report on a group of clients. Which
client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with COPD requesting pain medication
B. A client with chronic kidney disease who has cloudy, dialysate
Predictor 2026 Exam with NGN 150
Questions & Answers
EXAM
1. A nurse is assisting the provider with a lumbar puncture for
a client suspected of meningitis. Which position should the
nurse assist the client into?
A. Supine with legs extended
B. Head flexed to chest and knees drawn to abdomen
C. Prone with arms extended
D. High Fowler’s position
Answer: B.
Rationale: The fetal position (head and knees flexed) helps open
the intervertebral spaces, providing better access for needle
insertion.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with COPD whose oxygen
saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Encourage coughing
B. Notify the provider
C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
D. Obtain ABG results
,Answer: C.
Rationale: According to the ABCs of priority setting, airway and
breathing are the first concern. Hypoxemia with an SpO₂ of 88%
requires immediate supplemental oxygen.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about digoxin toxicity. Which
findings should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A. Bradycardia
B. Yellow-green halos
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Hypertension
E. Confusion
Answers: A, B, C, E.
Rationale: Classic signs of digoxin toxicity include GI upset
(nausea/vomiting), visual disturbances (yellow-green halos),
bradycardia, and neurological symptoms like confusion.
Hypertension is not associated.
4. A nurse is assessing a client receiving furosemide. Which
electrolyte imbalance is the client at greatest risk for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
,Answer: C.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic, which causes significant
potassium loss in urine, leading to hypokalemia.
5. (NGN Case Study) A 72-year-old male is admitted with
community-acquired pneumonia. History includes
hypertension, CKD stage 3, and gout. VS: T 38.9°C (102°F), HR
102, RR 24, BP 140/90, SpO₂ 88% on room air. The client is
confused and coughing productive yellow sputum.
Highlight the three assessment findings that require immediate
intervention.
A. Temperature 38.9°C
B. Heart rate 102 beats/min
C. Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min
D. Oxygen saturation 88%
E. Confusion
F. Productive cough
Answer: D, E. (Oxygen saturation 88% and confusion)
Rationale: An SpO₂ of 88% indicates hypoxemia requiring
immediate intervention. Confusion may be a sign of worsening
hypoxia or infection. The other findings, while abnormal, are not
immediately life-threatening.
6. A nurse is caring for a client in the PACU. Which of the
following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
, A. Bounding pulse
B. Oliguria
C. Hypertension
D. Tachycardia
Answer: B.
Rationale: Decreased cardiac output leads to reduced renal
perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria).
7. A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage after an
explosion. Which of the following clients should the nurse
identify as a priority?
A. A client with a minor laceration
B. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
C. A client who is walking and talking
D. A client with a simple fracture
Answer: B.
Rationale: In mass casualty triage, clients with life-threatening
injuries that have a high chance of survival (e.g., hypovolemic
shock) are given the highest priority.
8. A nurse is receiving report on a group of clients. Which
client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with COPD requesting pain medication
B. A client with chronic kidney disease who has cloudy, dialysate
