NR 570 FINAL EXAM (CHAMBERLAIN) NEWEST 2026
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| NR570 COMMON
DIAGNOSIS & MANAGEMENT IN ACUTE CARE FINAL
EXAM REVIEW WITH 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ GRADED A+
A 67-year-old male with history of CAD presents with crushing chest
pain, diaphoresis, and ST elevation in leads V2–V4. BP 90/60. What is
the next step?
a) Start beta blockers immediately
b) Administer IV fluids and prepare for PCI
c) Give thrombolytics only
d) Discharge if pain improves - Correct Answer - b) Administer IV fluids
and prepare for PCI
Anterior STEMI with hypotension suggests cardiogenic compromise.
Stabilization with fluids (if no pulmonary edema) and urgent PCI is
priority. Beta-blockers are contraindicated in hypotension.
A 58-year-old diabetic presents with confusion, glucose 650 mg/dL, no
ketones, serum osmolality elevated. Diagnosis?
a) DKA
b) HHS
c) Hypoglycemia
d) SIADH - Correct Answer - b) HHS
pg. 1
,Severe hyperglycemia, high osmolality, and absence of ketones indicate
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, common in type 2 diabetes.
A patient presents with fever, hypotension, lactate 5 mmol/L despite
fluids. Next step?
a) Observe
b) Start vasopressors
c) Discharge
d) Give diuretics - Correct Answer - b) Start vasopressors
Septic shock is defined by persistent hypotension after fluids.
Vasopressors like norepinephrine are indicated.
A 45-year-old presents with sudden severe headache, neck stiffness, and
photophobia. Best initial test?
a) MRI
b) CT head
c) LP first
d) EEG - Correct Answer - b) CT head
Suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage requires CT before LP to rule out
increased ICP.
A COPD patient presents with worsening dyspnea, CO2 retention, and
drowsiness. Next step?
a) Oxygen only
pg. 2
,b) Intubation
c) BiPAP
d) Antibiotics only - Correct Answer - c) BiPAP
Non-invasive ventilation is first-line for acute hypercapnic respiratory
failure in COPD unless contraindicated.
A 62-year-old male presents with sudden tearing chest pain radiating to
the back and unequal arm blood pressures. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
a) Myocardial infarction
b) Aortic dissection
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Pericarditis - Correct Answer - b) Aortic dissection
Classic presentation of aortic dissection includes tearing pain and blood
pressure discrepancy.
A 70-year-old female presents with confusion, fever, and dysuria. What
is the likely cause?
a) Stroke
b) Dementia
c) UTI-induced delirium
d) Brain tumor - Correct Answer - c) UTI-induced delirium
UTIs commonly cause acute delirium in elderly patients.
pg. 3
, A 55-year-old presents with crushing chest pain and ST elevation in
inferior leads. Which artery is affected?
a) LAD
b) RCA
c) Circumflex
d) Left main - Correct Answer - b) RCA
Inferior MI is typically due to right coronary artery occlusion.
A patient presents with unilateral leg swelling after a flight. Best initial
test?
a) CT
b) Doppler ultrasound
c) MRI
d) X-ray - Correct Answer - b) Doppler ultrasound
Ultrasound is first-line for suspected DVT.
A patient presents with sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain.
Diagnosis?
a) Pneumonia
b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Asthma
d) CHF - Correct Answer - b) Pulmonary embolism
Sudden onset with hypoxia suggests PE.
pg. 4
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| NR570 COMMON
DIAGNOSIS & MANAGEMENT IN ACUTE CARE FINAL
EXAM REVIEW WITH 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ GRADED A+
A 67-year-old male with history of CAD presents with crushing chest
pain, diaphoresis, and ST elevation in leads V2–V4. BP 90/60. What is
the next step?
a) Start beta blockers immediately
b) Administer IV fluids and prepare for PCI
c) Give thrombolytics only
d) Discharge if pain improves - Correct Answer - b) Administer IV fluids
and prepare for PCI
Anterior STEMI with hypotension suggests cardiogenic compromise.
Stabilization with fluids (if no pulmonary edema) and urgent PCI is
priority. Beta-blockers are contraindicated in hypotension.
A 58-year-old diabetic presents with confusion, glucose 650 mg/dL, no
ketones, serum osmolality elevated. Diagnosis?
a) DKA
b) HHS
c) Hypoglycemia
d) SIADH - Correct Answer - b) HHS
pg. 1
,Severe hyperglycemia, high osmolality, and absence of ketones indicate
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, common in type 2 diabetes.
A patient presents with fever, hypotension, lactate 5 mmol/L despite
fluids. Next step?
a) Observe
b) Start vasopressors
c) Discharge
d) Give diuretics - Correct Answer - b) Start vasopressors
Septic shock is defined by persistent hypotension after fluids.
Vasopressors like norepinephrine are indicated.
A 45-year-old presents with sudden severe headache, neck stiffness, and
photophobia. Best initial test?
a) MRI
b) CT head
c) LP first
d) EEG - Correct Answer - b) CT head
Suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage requires CT before LP to rule out
increased ICP.
A COPD patient presents with worsening dyspnea, CO2 retention, and
drowsiness. Next step?
a) Oxygen only
pg. 2
,b) Intubation
c) BiPAP
d) Antibiotics only - Correct Answer - c) BiPAP
Non-invasive ventilation is first-line for acute hypercapnic respiratory
failure in COPD unless contraindicated.
A 62-year-old male presents with sudden tearing chest pain radiating to
the back and unequal arm blood pressures. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
a) Myocardial infarction
b) Aortic dissection
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Pericarditis - Correct Answer - b) Aortic dissection
Classic presentation of aortic dissection includes tearing pain and blood
pressure discrepancy.
A 70-year-old female presents with confusion, fever, and dysuria. What
is the likely cause?
a) Stroke
b) Dementia
c) UTI-induced delirium
d) Brain tumor - Correct Answer - c) UTI-induced delirium
UTIs commonly cause acute delirium in elderly patients.
pg. 3
, A 55-year-old presents with crushing chest pain and ST elevation in
inferior leads. Which artery is affected?
a) LAD
b) RCA
c) Circumflex
d) Left main - Correct Answer - b) RCA
Inferior MI is typically due to right coronary artery occlusion.
A patient presents with unilateral leg swelling after a flight. Best initial
test?
a) CT
b) Doppler ultrasound
c) MRI
d) X-ray - Correct Answer - b) Doppler ultrasound
Ultrasound is first-line for suspected DVT.
A patient presents with sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain.
Diagnosis?
a) Pneumonia
b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Asthma
d) CHF - Correct Answer - b) Pulmonary embolism
Sudden onset with hypoxia suggests PE.
pg. 4
