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Advanced Pharmacology Week 11 Exam – 100 Questions with Rationales (Anticoagulation, Antiarrhythmics, Psychopharmacology, Antimicrobials, Pregnancy/Lactation, Pediatrics, Geriatrics)

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Graduate-level advanced pharmacology test bank for Week 11 exam with 100 multiple-choice questions, correct answers, and detailed rationales. Section 1 – Anticoagulation & Antiplatelet Therapy (warfarin INR target 2.0-3.0 for atrial fibrillation, andexanet alfa reversal of apixaban, apixaban dosing in renal impairment CrCl 25 mL/min 2.5 mg BID, warfarin INR 4.8 without bleeding hold + low-dose oral vitamin K 2.5 mg, clopidogrel irreversible P2Y12 inhibitor, HIT enoxaparin contraindicated, rifampin warfarin interaction CYP2C9 induction ↓INR, dabigatran reversal idarucizumab, DOACs contraindicated in mechanical heart valves, clopidogrel stop 5-7 days pre-op, DAPT 12 months post-DES, heparin monitoring aPTT, argatroban HIT, apixaban no routine INR monitoring, apixaban safest in CKD stage 4, aspirin irreversible COX-1 inhibition ↓thromboxane A2, purple toe syndrome cholesterol embolization, CHA₂DS₂-VASc score 1 consider NOAC, rivaroxaban missed dose take same day). Section 2 – Antiarrhythmic Drugs (amiodarone baseline TSH, CXR, LFTs, dofetilide torsades de pointes QT monitoring, digoxin contraindicated in WPW + AF, lidocaine Class IB post-MI ventricular arrhythmias, flecainide increased mortality in CAD CAST trial, procainamide first-line stable monomorphic VT, dronedarone contraindicated in NYHA class IV HF, hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity, amiodarone hypothyroidism manage with levothyroxine continue drug, sotalol beta-blocker + Class III, amiodarone corneal microdeposits annual eye exam, adenosine narrow-complex SVT transient asystole, verapamil Class IV L-type calcium channel blocker, propafenone Class IC no structural heart disease, amiodarone warfarin interaction inhibit CYP2C9 ↑INR). Section 3 – Psychopharmacology (sertraline onset 2-4 weeks, fluoxetine + linezolid serotonin syndrome, olanzapine highest metabolic syndrome risk, lithium toxicity coarse tremor confusion, amitriptyline TCAs fatal in overdose, clozapine ANC 500 stop REMS protocol, lamotrigine Stevens-Johnson syndrome rash, phenelzine MAOI tyramine restriction, buspirone onset 2-4 weeks, quetiapine alpha-1 blockade orthostatic hypotension, haloperidol tardive dyskinesia, valproate hepatotoxicity hyperammonemia monitor LFTs, venlafaxine withdrawal discontinuation syndrome brain zaps, buprenorphine partial mu agonist opioid use disorder, esketamine REMS 2-hour monitoring, paroxetine/fluoxetine strong CYP2D6 inhibitors, lithium + HCTZ ↓lithium clearance ↑toxicity, ziprasidone QTc prolongation baseline ECG, carbamazepine SIADH hyponatremia, disulfiram Antabuse aversive reaction). Section 4 – Antimicrobial Stewardship (vancomycin red man syndrome slow infusion, MRSA bacteremia vancomycin trough 15-20 mcg/mL, ciprofloxacin fluoroquinolone tendon rupture black box, ceftriaxone safe in penicillin anaphylaxis low cross-reactivity, gentamicin high trough ↑ototoxicity nephrotoxicity, C. diff oral vancomycin fidaxomicin, HIV CD4 80 PJP prophylaxis TMP-SMX, linezolid thrombocytopenia dose-related myelosuppression, oral ketoconazole hepatotoxicity black box, rifampin red-orange body fluids, gentamicin aminoglycoside TDM peak/trough, INH peripheral neuropathy pyridoxine B6, uncomplicated UTI TMP-SMX first-line, fulminant C. diff IV metronidazole + oral vancomycin, tenofovir TDF nephrotoxicity monitor creatinine). Sections 5-7 – Pregnancy/Lactation (lisinopril ACE inhibitor contraindicated pregnancy, valproate neural tube defects, sertraline preferred SSRI lactation, doxylamine/pyridoxine Diclegis FDA-approved hyperemesis, insulin preferred gestational diabetes, albuterol + prednisone safe asthma exacerbation pregnancy, levothyroxine dose increase 25-50% pregnancy, amoxicillin safe UTI pregnancy, dicloxacillin/cephalexin safe mastitis lactation, lamotrigine clearance ↑ in pregnancy ↑dose), Pediatrics (acetaminophen 15 mg/kg 14 kg = 210 mg, surfactant endotracheal tube RDS, methylphenidate insomnia appetite suppression, amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day 20 kg BID = 900 mg, acetaminophen/ibuprofen for febrile seizure no aspirin, vitamin K IM at birth prevents VKDB, pancreatic enzymes applesauce every meal/snack, spacer improves inhaler delivery in children, ranitidine withdrawn NDMA contamination, phenytoin gingival hyperplasia switch levetiracetam), Geriatric Pharmacology (diphenhydramine Beers Criteria anticholinergic avoid, acetaminophen first-line OA elderly, donepezil bradycardia syncope fall risk, lisinopril ACE inhibitor ↑hyperkalemia risk, tamsulosin orthostatic hypotension falls, benzodiazepines avoid in elderly Beers Criteria, TMP-SMX warfarin major INR increase, oxybutynin anticholinergic cognitive impairment delirium, UTI common cause delirium in elderly with Parkinson’s, digoxin 0.125 mg/day Beers Criteria). Perfect for advanced pharmacology graduate courses, NP certification, and Week 11 final exam review

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1|Page


**TEST BANK FOR ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY**
**WEEK 11 EXAM**100 MULTIPLE-CHOICE
QUESTIONS + ANSWERS & DETAILED
RATIONALES**HIGH-YIELD CONTENT •
GRADUATE-LEVEL • FIRST-TIME PASS** 2026–
2027 ACADEMIC YEAR**



# SECTION 1: ANTICOAGULATION & ANTIPLATELET THERAPY
(Questions 1–20)


**1. A 68-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation (CHA₂DS₂-VASc score
of 5) is started on warfarin. What is the target INR range for this
patient?**
A) 1.5–2.0
B) 2.0–3.0
C) 2.5–3.5
D) 3.0–4.0


**Answer: B**
*Rationale:* For non-valvular atrial fibrillation, target INR is 2.0–3.0
(range 2.5 is ideal). Mechanical heart valves require 2.5–3.5.

,2|Page




**2. A patient on apixaban (Eliquis) for DVT prophylaxis presents with
acute gastrointestinal bleeding. Which reversal agent is most
appropriate?**
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Andexanet alfa
D) Idarucizumab


**Answer: C**
*Rationale:* Andexanet alfa reverses Factor Xa inhibitors (apixaban,
rivaroxaban, edoxaban). Idarucizumab reverses dabigatran (direct
thrombin inhibitor).


**3. A 72-year-old patient with renal impairment (CrCl 25 mL/min)
requires anticoagulation for DVT. Which direct oral anticoagulant
(DOAC) requires dose adjustment and is safest?**
A) Rivaroxaban 20 mg daily
B) Apixaban 2.5 mg BID
C) Dabigatran 150 mg BID
D) Edoxaban 60 mg daily


**Answer: B**

,3|Page


*Rationale:* Apixaban has lowest renal excretion (~25%). At CrCl <30
mL/min, apixaban dose is reduced to 2.5 mg BID. Dabigatran (80%
renal) contraindicated if CrCl <30.


**4. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 4.8 without bleeding. What is
the appropriate management?**
A) Hold warfarin and give oral vitamin K 2.5 mg
B) Administer fresh frozen plasma immediately
C) Give IV vitamin K 10 mg
D) Continue warfarin at same dose


**Answer: A**
*Rationale:* INR 4.5–10 without bleeding: hold warfarin, give low-dose
oral vitamin K (1–2.5 mg). IV vitamin K reserved for bleeding or very
high INR (>10).


**5. Which antiplatelet agent irreversibly inhibits the P2Y12
receptor?**
A) Aspirin
B) Clopidogrel
C) Ticagrelor
D) Cilostazol


**Answer: B**

, 4|Page


*Rationale:* Clopidogrel and prasugrel are irreversible P2Y12
inhibitors. Ticagrelor is reversible. Aspirin inhibits COX-1.


**6. A patient with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) requires
anticoagulation. Which agent is contraindicated?**
A) Argatroban
B) Bivalirudin
C) Lepirudin
D) Enoxaparin


**Answer: D**
*Rationale:* All heparins (unfractionated and LMWH) are
contraindicated in HIT. Direct thrombin inhibitors (argatroban,
bivalirudin) are used.


**7. A patient on warfarin is started on rifampin for tuberculosis. What
change in INR is expected and why?**
A) Increased INR – rifampin inhibits warfarin metabolism
B) Decreased INR – rifampin induces CYP2C9
C) No change
D) Unpredictable


**Answer: B**

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