NUR 2513 / NUR2513: Maternal-Child Nursing
Exam 1 Rasmussen Actual Exam – Complete
Questions and Answers with Detailed Rationales –
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Foundations: Antepartum Nursing & Fetal Development
Q1: A patient who is planning pregnancy asks the nurse about folic acid
supplementation to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. What is the recommended
daily dose of folic acid for most women of childbearing age?
A. 0.1 mg daily
B. 0.4 mg daily [CORRECT]
C. 4 mg daily
D. 1 mg daily
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. For most women trying to conceive, 0.4 mg or 400 mcg
of folic acid daily is recommended starting at least one month before conception; the 4
mg dose is reserved for women who have already had a pregnancy affected by a neural
tube defect.
Q2: A patient at her first prenatal visit at 10 weeks gestation asks how often she will
need to be seen. The nurse correctly explains that after the initial visit, the standard
prenatal visit schedule is:
A. Every 2 weeks until delivery
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly until birth
[CORRECT]
C. Every month throughout the entire pregnancy
D. Every 3 weeks until 32 weeks, then weekly
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: The best answer is B. Standard prenatal care follows a predictable
pattern—monthly visits up to 28 weeks, biweekly through 36 weeks, and weekly until
delivery—so the nurse should explain this schedule clearly to help the patient plan
ahead.
Q3: A patient at 34 weeks gestation calls the triage nurse and reports a severe
headache that does not resolve with rest, along with blurred vision and pain in her upper
abdomen. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as potential signs of:
A. Normal third-trimester discomfort
B. Preeclampsia requiring immediate evaluation [CORRECT]
C. Round ligament pain
D. Braxton Hicks contractions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric
pain in the third trimester are classic warning signs of preeclampsia, which can
progress quickly and requires prompt assessment of blood pressure and proteinuria.
Q4: In fetal circulation, the ductus venosus serves which function?
A. It shunts oxygenated blood from the right atrium to the left atrium
B. It allows blood to bypass the pulmonary circulation by shunting from the pulmonary
artery to the aorta
C. It shunts oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein past the liver to the inferior vena
cava [CORRECT]
D. It carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. The ductus venosus is that crucial bypass channel that
sends oxygen-rich blood from the umbilical vein straight to the inferior vena cava,
largely skipping the hepatic circulation so the fetus gets the best oxygen delivery
possible.
Q5: A patient at 28 weeks complains of burning discomfort in her chest after meals and
when lying down. The nurse should recommend which non-pharmacologic intervention
first?
A. Drinking large glasses of milk with each meal
, B. Eating small, frequent meals and avoiding lying flat for 2 to 3 hours after eating
[CORRECT]
C. Taking a sodium bicarbonate tablet before each meal
D. Eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Heartburn in pregnancy responds well to simple
lifestyle changes like smaller meals and staying upright after eating, which helps keep
stomach acid where it belongs; large meals or lying flat just make reflux worse.
Q6: At approximately what gestational age is a fetus generally considered viable,
meaning it has a reasonable chance of survival outside the uterus with intensive care?
A. 16 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks [CORRECT]
D. 32 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. Viability is generally accepted around 24 weeks
gestation, when the fetal lungs and other organ systems have developed enough that
survival outside the womb becomes possible with neonatal intensive care support.
Q7: A patient at 24 weeks asks if she should receive the Tdap vaccine during this
pregnancy. The nurse correctly advises that:
A. Tdap is contraindicated during pregnancy and should be given postpartum only
B. Tdap should be administered between 27 and 36 weeks gestation during each
pregnancy [CORRECT]
C. Tdap is only needed in the first trimester
D. Tdap is optional and provides no benefit to the newborn
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. The CDC and ACOG recommend Tdap during every
pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks, so maternal antibodies transfer to the
fetus and protect the newborn from pertussis in those vulnerable first months of life.
Q8: A 35-year-old patient at 11 weeks gestation asks about non-invasive prenatal
testing (NIPT). The nurse correctly explains that NIPT:
A. Requires chorionic villus sampling to obtain fetal cells
Exam 1 Rasmussen Actual Exam – Complete
Questions and Answers with Detailed Rationales –
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Foundations: Antepartum Nursing & Fetal Development
Q1: A patient who is planning pregnancy asks the nurse about folic acid
supplementation to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. What is the recommended
daily dose of folic acid for most women of childbearing age?
A. 0.1 mg daily
B. 0.4 mg daily [CORRECT]
C. 4 mg daily
D. 1 mg daily
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. For most women trying to conceive, 0.4 mg or 400 mcg
of folic acid daily is recommended starting at least one month before conception; the 4
mg dose is reserved for women who have already had a pregnancy affected by a neural
tube defect.
Q2: A patient at her first prenatal visit at 10 weeks gestation asks how often she will
need to be seen. The nurse correctly explains that after the initial visit, the standard
prenatal visit schedule is:
A. Every 2 weeks until delivery
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly until birth
[CORRECT]
C. Every month throughout the entire pregnancy
D. Every 3 weeks until 32 weeks, then weekly
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: The best answer is B. Standard prenatal care follows a predictable
pattern—monthly visits up to 28 weeks, biweekly through 36 weeks, and weekly until
delivery—so the nurse should explain this schedule clearly to help the patient plan
ahead.
Q3: A patient at 34 weeks gestation calls the triage nurse and reports a severe
headache that does not resolve with rest, along with blurred vision and pain in her upper
abdomen. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as potential signs of:
A. Normal third-trimester discomfort
B. Preeclampsia requiring immediate evaluation [CORRECT]
C. Round ligament pain
D. Braxton Hicks contractions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric
pain in the third trimester are classic warning signs of preeclampsia, which can
progress quickly and requires prompt assessment of blood pressure and proteinuria.
Q4: In fetal circulation, the ductus venosus serves which function?
A. It shunts oxygenated blood from the right atrium to the left atrium
B. It allows blood to bypass the pulmonary circulation by shunting from the pulmonary
artery to the aorta
C. It shunts oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein past the liver to the inferior vena
cava [CORRECT]
D. It carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. The ductus venosus is that crucial bypass channel that
sends oxygen-rich blood from the umbilical vein straight to the inferior vena cava,
largely skipping the hepatic circulation so the fetus gets the best oxygen delivery
possible.
Q5: A patient at 28 weeks complains of burning discomfort in her chest after meals and
when lying down. The nurse should recommend which non-pharmacologic intervention
first?
A. Drinking large glasses of milk with each meal
, B. Eating small, frequent meals and avoiding lying flat for 2 to 3 hours after eating
[CORRECT]
C. Taking a sodium bicarbonate tablet before each meal
D. Eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Heartburn in pregnancy responds well to simple
lifestyle changes like smaller meals and staying upright after eating, which helps keep
stomach acid where it belongs; large meals or lying flat just make reflux worse.
Q6: At approximately what gestational age is a fetus generally considered viable,
meaning it has a reasonable chance of survival outside the uterus with intensive care?
A. 16 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks [CORRECT]
D. 32 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. Viability is generally accepted around 24 weeks
gestation, when the fetal lungs and other organ systems have developed enough that
survival outside the womb becomes possible with neonatal intensive care support.
Q7: A patient at 24 weeks asks if she should receive the Tdap vaccine during this
pregnancy. The nurse correctly advises that:
A. Tdap is contraindicated during pregnancy and should be given postpartum only
B. Tdap should be administered between 27 and 36 weeks gestation during each
pregnancy [CORRECT]
C. Tdap is only needed in the first trimester
D. Tdap is optional and provides no benefit to the newborn
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. The CDC and ACOG recommend Tdap during every
pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks, so maternal antibodies transfer to the
fetus and protect the newborn from pertussis in those vulnerable first months of life.
Q8: A 35-year-old patient at 11 weeks gestation asks about non-invasive prenatal
testing (NIPT). The nurse correctly explains that NIPT:
A. Requires chorionic villus sampling to obtain fetal cells
